Bank PO Papers
Canara Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2009
(Held on 15-3-2009)
English : Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
John Maynard Keynes, the trendiest dead economist of this apocalyptic moment, was the godfather of government stimulus. Keynes had the radical idea that throwing money at recessions through aggressive deficit spending would resuscitate flatlined economies- and he wasn’t too particular about where the money was thrown. In the depths of the Depression, he suggested that the Treasury could “fill old bottles with banknotes, bury them at suitable depths in disused coal mines” then sit back and watch a money-mining boom create jobs and prosperity. “It would, indeed, be more sensible to build houses and the like, “he wrote, but “the above would be better than nothing.”
As President-elect Barack Obama prepares to throw money at the current downturn-a stimulus package starting at about $800 billion, plus the second $350 billion chunk of the financial bailout-we all really do seem to be Keynesians now. Just about every expert agrees that pumping $1 trillion into a moribund economy will rev up the ethereal goods-and-services engine that Keynes called “aggregate demand” and stimulate at least some shortterm activity, even if it is all wasted on money pits. But Keynes was also right that there would be more sensible ways to spend it. There would also be less sensible ways to spend it. A trillion dollars’ worth of bad ideas-sprawl-inducing highways and bridges to nowhere, ethanol plants and pipelines that accelerate global warming, tax breaks for overleveraged McMansion builders and burdensome new long-term federal entitlements-would be worse than mere waste. It would be smarter to buy every American an iPod, a set of Ginsu knives and 600 Subway foot-longs.
It would be smarter still to throw all that money at things we need to do anyway, which is the goal of Obama’s upcoming American Recovery and Reinvestment Plan. It will include a mix of tax cuts, aid to beleaguered state and local governments; and spending to address needs ranging from food stamps to computerized health records to bridge repairs to broadband network to energy-efficiency retrofits, all designed to save or create 3 million to 4 million jobs by the end of 2010. Obama has said speed is his top priority because the faster Washington injects cash into the financial bloodstream, the better it stands to help avert a multiyear slump with double-digit unemployment and deflation. But he also wants to use the stimulus to advance his long-term priorities : reducing energy use and carbon emissions, cutting middle-class taxes, upgrading neglected infrastructure, reining in health-care costs and eventually reducing the budget deficits that exploded under George W. Bush. Obama’s goal is to exploit this crisis in the best sense of the word to start pursuing his vision of a greener, father, more competitive, more sustainable economy.
Unfortunately, while 21st century Washington has demonstrated an impressive ability to spend money quickly, it has yet to prove that it can spend money wisely. And the chum of a 1 with 12 zeros is already creating a feeding frenzy for the ages. Lobbyists for shoe companies, zoos, catfish farmers, mall owners, airlines, public broadcasters, car dealers and everyone else who can afford their retainers are lining up for a piece of the stimulus. States that embarked on raucous spending and tax cuttng sprees when they were flush are begging for bailouts now that they’re broke. And politicians are dusting off their unfunded mobster museums, waterslides and other pet projects for rebranding as shovel-ready infrastructure investments. As Obama’s aides scramble to assemble something effective and transformative as well as politically achievable, they acknowledge the tension between his desires for speed and reform.
1. Obama’s upcoming American Recovery and Reinvestment Plan focuses on which of the following ?
(1) Recovery of all debts from the debtors in a phased manner.
(2) Pumping money very liberally in projects that are mandatory.
(3) Investing money recklessly in any project regardless of its utility.
(A) (1) only
(B) (2) only
(C) (3) only
(D) (2) and (3) only
(E) All (1), (2) & (3)
Ans : (D)
2. John M. Keynes was advocate of which of the following suggestions ?
(A) Spending money recklessly during recessions is suicidal
(B) Exorbitant spending during recessions is likely to boost economy
(C) Aggressive deficit spending is likely to be fatal for economic meltdown
(D) Government stimulus to economy may not help because of red-tapism
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. Obama desires to accelerate the process of pumping money with utmost rapidity as he believes that it would—
(1) Help create reasonably high employment opportunities
(2) Avoid deflation
(3) Inject cash into the already troubled economy
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (1) and (3) only
(D) All (1) (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. Which of the following is TRUE about Keynes’ philosophy ?
(A) Actual spending money during meltdown is more important than where and on what it is spent
(B) Government should be selective in approach for spending money during recession
(C) Filling old bottles with banknotes and burying them is an atrocious proposal
(D) Creating jobs and prosparity during recessions is almost an impracticable proposal
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. What, according to Keynes, is the “aggregate demand” ?
(A) Goods and Services Sector
(B) Stimulation of a short-term activity
(C) Attempting to rev up the sluggish economy
(D) Pumping one trillion dollars into economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. According to the author of the passage, food stamps, bridge repairs, etc. are the projects that—
(A) Do not warrant urgent spending as they have a lower utility value
(B) Need the least investment and priority as compared to building houses for the needy
(C) May not have any favourable impact on attempts to counter recession
(D) Have lower value in terms of returns but require major investments
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
7. The author of the passage calls Barack Obama and his team as “Keynesians” because—
(A) Barack Obama has been reluctant to follow Keynes’ philosophy
(B) His team is advising Barack to refrain from Keynes’ philosophy
(C) Barack Obama and his team have decided to fil old bottles with banknotes
(D) Building houses has been under the active consideration of Barack Obama and his team
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. Highways, bridges, ethanol plants, etc. are considered by the author as—
(A) Reasonably appropriate propositions to spend money on
(B) Measures that affect the environment adversely
(C) Imprudent proposals to waste money on
(D) Tax saving schemes bestowed on builders
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. Which of the following is/are corrective measure(s) as part of the long term priorities of Obama that was an outcome of his predecessor’s regime ?
(1) Countering recession through immediate rescue operations.
(2) Reining the budget deficit.
(3) Creating a more sustainable economy.
(A) (1) & (2) only
(B) (2) & (3) only
(C) (1) & (3) only
(D) (2) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
10. Raucous
(A) Strident
(B) Harsh
(C) Rough
(D) Unprecedented
(E) Soft
Ans : (E)
11. Beleaguered
(A) Carefree
(B) Harassed
(C) Stressful
(D) Uneventful
(E) Evaporating
Ans : (A)
12. Moribund
(A) Declining
(B) Waning
(C) Thriving
(D) Pessimistic
(E) Glorifying
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
13. Frenzy
(A) Passion
(B) Expression
(C) Succession
(D) Habit
(E) Manifestation
Ans : (A)
14. Apocalyptic
(A) Unwelcome
(B) Disastrous
(C) Risk-free
(D) Joyous
(E) Ceremonious
Ans : (B)
15. Resuscitate
(A) Melt down
(B) Devastate
(C) Mislead
(D) Save
(E) Deactivate
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of these questions four words are given denoted by (1), (2), (3) and (4). Two of these words may be either synonyms or antonyms. Find out the correct pair in each question.
16. (1) Tranquility
(2) Loyalty
(3) Calamity
(4) Uproar
(A) 1–3
(B) 2–4
(C) 2–3
(D) 3–4
(E) 1–4
Ans : (E)
17. (1) Exorbitant
(2) Expeditious
(3) Quick
(4) Quest
(A) 3–4
(B) 1–2
(C) 1–4
(D) 3–2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
18. (1) Opaque
(2) Translucent
(3) Transverse
(4) Transvestite
(A) 1–4
(B) 2–4
(C) 3–1
(D) 2–1
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. (1) Ecstasy
(2) Depression
(3) Intoxication
(4) Compression
(A) 1–2
(B) 2–4
(C) 2–3
(D) 3–4
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. (1) Vilification
(2) Nullification
(3) Denigration
(4) Falsification
(A) 1–2
(B) 2–3
(C) 1–3
(D) 2–4
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 21–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
21. Radha’s three children, Shantana, Manu and Meera are talented, but the latter excels the other two.
(A) the last excels
(B) latter excel
(C) the latter excelling
(D) the last excelling
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
22. Students are not abandoning helmets, but some avoiding use of helmets while riding motorbikes.
(A) some avoid the used
(B) some avoid of the use
(C) some are avoiding of use
(D) some are avoiding use
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
23. We must treat any statement as a rumour until they are confirmed with proof.
(A) till they are confirmed
(B) until they are confirming
(C) until it is confirmed
(D) until it is confirming
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
24. The officer appreciated his subordinate’s many attempt to bravely confront the miscreants.
(A) many attempting brave confronts
(B) many brave attempts to confront
(C) repeated attempts to brave confront
(D) many attempts of brave confront
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
25. We admire him attempting to climb the summit in such a bad weather.
(A) his attempting to climb
(B) his attempt of climb
(C) him for attempt of climb
(D) his for attempt to climbing
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
26. Being a successful businessman demands hard work, honesty, persuasive skills and sound market knoweldge.
(A) To be a successful business who demands
(B) Being a successfully demanding businessman
(C) To be a successful businessman demanding
(D) For being a successful demanding businessman
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
27. Was it they who were accused of stealing the neighbour’s car ?
(A) Were it they who were
(B) Was it they who had
(C) Were they who
(D) Were it they who
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
28. The doctor has advised him to lay in bed at least for two weeks.
(A) that he lay in bed
(B) that he lays in bed
(C) to lie in bed
(D) to be laid in bed
(E) No correction reequired
Ans : (C)
29. He is the only one of the members who have paid all the dues.
(A) Member who has paid
(B) Members who have been paying
(C) Member who has been paid
(D) members who has paid
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
30. Neither any of the members of the society nor the Chairman were present for the annual meeting.
(A) were present at
(B) was present for
(C) have been present
(D) has been present for
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each sentence below one word has been printed in bold. Below the sentence, five words are suggested, one of which can replace the word printed in bold, without changing the meaning of the sentence. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
31. She came in utter disrepute due to her vindictive act.
(A) revengeful
(B) ungrateful
(C) unpardonable
(D) uneventful
(E) derogatory
Ans : (A)
32. His attempts to equivocate the subject under discussion were thwarted.
(A) balance
(B) defend
(C) mislead
(D) adjust
(E) reconcile
Ans : (C)
33. He was conceptually clear about the problem and therefore could provide a pragmatic solution.
(A) diplomatic
(B) practical
(C) analytical
(D) tolerable
(E) acceptable
Ans : (B)
34. They returned after their ignominious defeat in the foreign country.
(A) irreversible
(B) impertinent
(C) indecisive
(D) impulse
(E) disgraceful
Ans : (E)
35. The minister’s clandestine meeting with the opposition party leader was severely criticized.
(A) unofficial
(B) authentic
(C) periodical
(D) secret
(E) purposeful
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3) (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(1) In all varieties of humour, especially the subtle ones it is therefore what the reader thinks which gives extra meaning to these verses.
(2) But such a verse may also be enjoyed at the surface level.
(3) Nonsense verse is one of the most sophisticated forms of literature.
(4) This fulfils the author’s main intention in such a verse which is to give pleasure.
(5) However the reader who understands the broad implications of the content and allusion finds greater pleasure
(6) The reason being it requires the reader to supply a meaning beyond the surface meaning.
36. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (6)
(D) (3)
(E) (4)
Ans : (A)
37. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence ?
(A) (1)
(B) (5)
(C) (6)
(D) (2)
(E) (3)
Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence ?
(A) (4)
(B) (5)
(C) (2)
(D) (3)
(E) (1)
Ans : (A)
39. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence ?
(A) (5)
(B) (1)
(C) (6)
(D) (4)
(E) (3)
Ans : (E)
40. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (1)
(E) (3)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The U.S. is in the …41… of a cleanup of toxic financial waste that will …42… taxpayers hundreds of billions of dollars, at the very least. The primary manufacturers of these hazardous products …43… multimillion- dollar paychecks for their efforts. So why shouldn’t they …44… to pay for their mopup ? This is, after all, what the U.S. Congress …45… in 1980 for …46… of actual toxic waste. Under the Superfund law …47… that year, polluters …48… for the messes they make. Environmental lawyer E. Michael Thomas sees no …49… lawmakers couldn’t demand the same of financial polluters and …50… them to ante up some of the bank bailout money.
41. (A) essence
(B) debate
(C) range
(D) depth
(E) midst
Ans : (E)
42. (A) facilitate
(B) save
(C) benefit
(D) cost
(E) earn
Ans : (D)
43. (A) spent
(B) pocketed
(C) donated
(D) demanded
(E) dwindled
Ans : (A)
44. (A) have
(B) admit
(C) hesitate
(D) come
(E) defy
Ans : (C)
45. (A) admonished
(B) visualized
(C) decreed
(D) refrained
(E) commented
Ans : (B)
46. (A) producers
(B) users
(C) consumers
(D) advocates
(E) exponents
Ans : (A)
47. (A) abandoned
(B) enacted
(C) revoked
(D) forced
(E) squshed
Ans : (B)
48. (A) demand
(B) consider
(C) regain
(D) claim
(E) pay
Ans : (E)
49. (A) issue
(B) wonder
(C) practice
(D) reason
(E) compensation
Ans : (D)
50. (A) dupe
(B) follow
(C) force
(D) plead
(E) appeal
Ans : (C)
Canara Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2009
(Held on 15-3-2009)
General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. As per the recent reports published in newspapers/magazines, India ranks at a lower level in Hunger Index. The Hunger Index is measured on which of the following indicators?
1. Child Malnutrition
2. Rate of Child Mortality
3. Rate of Literacy
4. No. of people who are calories deficient
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. Who amongst the following economists gave the concept of ‘economies of scale’, which says ‘many goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series’ ?
(A) Edward C. Prescott
(B) Amartya Sen
(C) Gary S. Becker
(D) Edmund S. Phelps
(E) Paul Krugman
Ans : (E)
3. As per the recent report which of the following countries emerged as India's top trading partner during 2008-09 ?
(A) Russia
(B) Brazil
(C) USA
(D) China
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. In its mid term review of the economy the Reserve Bank of India pegged the country’s economic growth for fiscal year 2008-09 at which of the following levels ?
(A) 6%
(B) 6.5%
(C) 7%
(D) 7.7%
(E) 8.7%
Ans : (D)
5. Which of the following countries has elected Joe Biden as its Vice President in its general elections held in November 2008 ?
(A) Britain
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. Very often we read in newspapers/magazines about ‘Sovereign Wealth Funds’. Which of the following is/are the correct description of the same ?
1. These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns.
2. These are the funds, which were accumulated by some people over the years but were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years.
3. The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailouts packages are known as sovereign funds.
(A) Both 2 and 3 only
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. The Govt. of India has decided to declare which of the following rivers a National River ?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Yamuna
(C) Ganga
(D) Kaveri
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. Very often we read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. What was the purpose of promoting SEZs in India ?
1. They are established to promote exports.
2. They are established to attract investments from foreign countries.
3. They are established to help poorest of the poors in India as the activities of these zones are reserved only for poors and those living below poverty line.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2 only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. The Asian Cooperation Dialogue Conference of 31 nations was organized in October 2008 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Seoul (S. Korea)
(C) Beijing (China)
(D) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
(E) Astana (Kazakhastan)
Ans : (E)
10. The White Tiger is a book written by—
(A) Amitav Ghosh
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) V. S. Naipaul
(D) Kiran Desai
(E) Aravind Adiga
Ans : (E)
11. The Ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with RBI is known as—
(A) Liquidity Ratio
(B) SLR
(C) CRR
(D) Net Demand & Time Liability
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. A Rs. 35000 crore JSW Steel Plant was inaugurated in November 2008 in—
(A) Kota
(B) Nandigram
(C) Pune
(D) Jamshedpur
(E) Salboni
Ans : (E)
13. The Govt. of India in order to provide some relief to the exporters announced a relief package of Rs.—
(A) 1000 crores
(B) 2500 crores
(C) 4000 crores
(D) 5000 crores
(E) 7000 crores
Ans : (D)
14. Which of the following awards/honours was conferred upon Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently ?
(A) Man of the year
(B) Kala Shikhar Samman
(C) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
(D) Kalidas Samman
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)
15. Which of the following Space Craft was launched recently to prepare a 3 dimensional Atlas of the lunar surface and also for chemical mapping of entire lunar surface ?
(A) PSLV-II
(B) Chandrayan II
(C) Chandrayan III
(D) Chandrayan-I
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
16. As per new revised rules now Foreign Direct Investment in Insurance sector is possible upto the limit of—
(A) 26%
(B) 40%
(C) 49%
(D) 70%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. Who amongst the following players recently became the first ever Indian to win a World Championship in Badminton ?
(A) P. Gopichand
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Aparna Popat
(D) Nandu M. Natekar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following countries got Wanchuck as its fifth King recently ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Nepal
(C) Japan
(D) Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. As per the news reports members of the SAARC agreed to establish a 'SAARC Food Bank' to ensure
food security for members in case of any emergency. Which of the following nations agreed to provide maximum quantity of food for the bank ?
(It will provide 1,53,200 tonnes)
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bhutan
(D) Nepal
(E) Sri Lanka
Ans : (A)
20. The availability of Cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as—
(A) Cash crunch
(B) Liquidity
(C) Credit
(D) Marketability
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21. India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries so that they are allowed to deal smoothly with the problem of fishermen who cross International Maritime Boundary Line ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. The World Development Report 2009 was released recently. Who publishes the World Development Report every year?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) United Nations Organizations
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
23. The 3rd IBSA Summit took place in New Delhi in October 2008. Which of the following statements about the same is/are correct ?
1. Leaders agreed to set a trilateral trade target of US$ 25 million by 2015.
2. Leaders adopted a 50 point Delhi Summit Declaration which has their views on global governance.
3. IBSA agreed to provide its membership to China and Russia from 2011
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. As per newspaper reports India's Trade gap is showing a negative growth since last few months ‘Trade Gap’ means what ?
(A) Gap between total GDP and total consumption
(B) Gap between total Imports and total Exports
(C) Gap between available liquidity and expected demand in next five months
(D) Gap between budgeted revenue collection and actual collection of the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. Mr. Kgalema Motlanthe who was on a visit to India in October 2008 is the—
(A) President of South Africa
(B) Prime Minister of South Africa
(C) President of Kenya
(D) Prime Minister of Kenya
(E) Deputy Director General of UNO
Ans : (A)
26. As per the reports published in newspapers India allowed to open Cross-LOC Trade after a gap of about 60 years. Which of the following routes was thrown open for the same ?
(A) Srinagar-Muzaffarabad
(B) Kolkata-Dhaka
(C) Varanasi-Kathmandu
(D) Imphal-Yangon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. Who amongst the following scored his 40th century in the Test cricket while playing against Australia in Nagpur in November 2008 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) M. S. Dhoni
(D) Harbhajan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Mr. Mohammed Anni Nasheed's name was in news in recent past as he has taken over as President of—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Maldives
(C) Malaysia
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. The financial turmoil all over the world in recent past has also put some effect on Indian economy. What measures RBI had taken to improve the situation ?
1. SLR has been reduced by one percentage points and at present is 24%
2. An advance of Rs. 25,000 crore provided to banks/financial institutions under the Agricultural debt waiver
and Debt Relief Schemes.
3. RBI allowed banks to raise their capital by issuing Investment Bonds. Almost all big banks have issued such bond in recent past.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) Only 1 & 2 both
Ans : (A)
30. Shivraj Chauhan has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) Delhi
Ans : (A)
31. ‘Jnanpith Award’ is given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Music
(B) Literature
(C) Sports
(D) Films
(E) Social Services
Ans : (B)
32. Who amongst the following recently announced his Retirement from the cricket world ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Harbhajan Singh
(D) Rahul Dravid
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. The second ‘BIMSTEC Summit’ was organized in November 2008 in—
(A) Dhaka
(B) Kathmandu
(C) Thimpu
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. The Govt. of India recently signed an agreement with Malaysia to facilitate employment of workers between the two countries. Which of the following was/were the reason(s) owing to which both the nations decided to make an agreement for the same ?
1. Malaysia is an important destination for Indian workers as Malaysia has almost 1.5 lakh Indian workers.
2. Most of the Indians are employed with the plantation and construction sectors where they were not getting a fair treatment.
3. In the last few years there was a strong opposition to employ Indians as the unemployment rate in Malaysia is almost 30%
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2 only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
35. Besides USA and France, India has also a Civil Nuclear Deal with—
(A) Britain
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (B)
36. Which of the following countries signed an agreement with Russia so that, the country did not attack on it in future and Russia also did not do the same ?
(A) Georgia
(B) Croatia
(C) Slovakia
(D) Tajikistan
(E) Mangolia
Ans : (A)
37. The third Commonwealth Youth Games were organized in October 2008 in—
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Bangalore
(C) Pune
(D) Lucknow
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (C)
38. Miss Karla Paula Henry won which of the following titles when she participated in an event in November 2008 in Philippines ?
(A) Miss Earth
(B) Miss World
(C) Miss Universe
(D) Miss Asia Pacific
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Development as Freedom’ ?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) C. Rangarajan
(C) Y. V. Reddy
(D) Bimal Jalan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
40. Who amongst the following cine star of India became the first upon whom Malaysian title ‘Datuk’ was conferred recently ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Akshay Khanna
(C) Salman Khan
(D) Shah Rukh Khan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
41. Mr. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the—
(A) President of New Zealand
(B) President of Australia
(C) President of Sweden
(D) President of Canada
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
42. Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 9th March
(B) 9th February
(C) 9th January
(D) 19th February
(E) 19th January
Ans : (C)
43. Gold Mines in India are located mainly in—
(A) Kolar
(B) Raniganj
(C) Jadugoda
(D) Veeranam
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
44. Which of the following two programmes are the parts of the National Social Assistance programme of the Govt. of India?
1. Indira Awas Yojana &
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
2. National Food for Work & Mid day Meal Scheme
3. National Old Age pension scheme & National Family Benefit Scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Either 1 or 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following programmes was launched to tackle special problems faced by those areas, which are affected by drought conditions frequently ?
1. Desert Development Programme
2. Drought Prone Areas Programme
3. Watershed Development Programme
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) All 1, 2 & 3
Ans : (E)
46. Ms. Kiran Desai is the author of which of the following books ?
(A) God of small things
(B) The inheritance of loss
(C) Midnight's children
(D) A House for Mr. Biswas
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. Which of the following is the duration of the present Five-Year Plan ?
(A) 2008–12
(B) 2009–13
(C) 2007–12
(D) 2006–11
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
48. Which of the following Ministries was Mr. Shivraj Patil looking after immediately prior to his resignation from the cabinet ?
(A) Foreign Affairs
(B) Home Affairs
(C) Rural Development
(D) Agriculture
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
49. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India provides a guaranteed 100 days employment to rural employment seekers in India ?
(A) Bharat Nirman
(B) Swarnjayanti Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) National Food for Work Programme
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
50. 'Satyam' which was in news recently was operating in which of the following areas ?
(A) Textile
(B) Mining
(C) Pharma
(D) Automobiles
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Indian Overseas Bank P.O. Exam., 2009
(Held on 5-4-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Goldman Sachs predicted that crude oil price would hit $200 and just as it appeared that alternative renewable energy had a chance of becoming an economically viable option, the international price of oil fell by over 70%. After hitting the all-time high of $147 a barrel, a month ago, crude oil fell to less than $40 a barrel. What explains this sharp decline in the international price of oil? There has not been any major new discovery of a hitherto unknown source of oil or gas. The short answer is that the demand does not have to fall by a very sizeable quantity for the price of crude to respond as it did. In the short run, the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low. Conversely, in the short run, even a relatively big change in the price of oil does not immediately lower consumption. It takes months, or years, of high oil price to inculcate habits of energy conservation. World crude oil price had remained at over $60 a barrel for most of 2005-2007 without making any major dent in demand.
The long answer is more complex. The economic slowdown in the US, Europe and Asia along with dollar depreciation and commodity speculation have all had some role in the downward descent in the international price of oil. In recent years, the supply of oil has been rising but not enough to catch up with the rising demand, resulting in an almost vertical escalation in its price. The number of crude oil futures and options contracts have also increased manifold which has led to significant speculation in the oil market. In comparison, the role of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) in fixing crude price has considerably weakened. OPEC is often accused of operating as a cartel restricting output thus keeping prices artificially high. It did succeed in setting the price of crude during the 1970s and the first half of the 80s. But, with increased futures trading and contracts, the control of crude pricing has moved from OPEC to banks and markets that deal with futures trading and contracts. It is true that most oil exporting regions of the world have remained politically unstable fuelling speculation over the price of crude. But there is little evidence that the geopolitical uncertainties in west Asia have improved to weaken the price of oil. Threatened by the downward slide of oil price, OPEC has, in fact, announced its decision to curtail output.
However most oil importers will heave a sigh of relief as they find their oil import bills decline except for those who bought options to import oil at prices higher than market prices. Exporting nations, on the other hand, will see their economic prosperity slip. Relatively low price of crude is also bad news for investments in alternative renewable energy that cannot compete with cheaper and non-renewable sources of energy.
1. Why are oil importing countries relieved ?
(A) Price of crude reached $ 147 not $ 200 as was predicted
(B) Discovery of oil reserves within their own territories
(C) Demand for crude has fallen sharply
(D) There is no need for them to invest huge amounts of money in alternative sources of energy
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
2. Which of the following factors is responsible for rise in speculation in crude oil markets ?
1. OPEC has not been able to restrict the oil output and control prices
2. The supply of oil has been rising to match demand
3. Existence of large number of oil futures and oil contracts
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. What does the phrase “the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low” imply ?
(A) When the price rises the demand for crude oil falls immediately
(B) A small change in demand will result in a sharp change in the price of crude
(C) Within a short span of time the price of crude oil has fluctuated sharply
(D) Speculation in oil does not have much of an impact on its price
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
4. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. The decline in oil prices has benefited all countries
2. Renewable energy sources are costlier than non-renewable ones
3. Lack of availability of alternative renewable energy resulted in rise in demand for crude
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Both 2 & 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. What has been the impact of the drop in oil prices ?
(A) Exploration for natural gas resources has risen
(B) The dollar has fallen sharply
(C) OPEC has decided to restrict its production of oil
(D) Economic depression in oil importing countries
(E) Drastic fall in demand for crude oil
Ans : (C)
6. What led to alternative energy sources being considered economically feasible ?
(A) The price of oil rose by 70 per cent while renewable energy sources are cheap
(B) Exorbitant crude oil prices made alternative energy sources an attractive option
(C) Expert predictions that the price of oil would alternately escalate and plunge sharply
(D) Evidence that no new sources of oil and gas are available
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. What does the author want to convey by citing the statistic of 2005-2007 ?
(A) The prices of crude were rising gradually so people were not alarmed
(B) The dollar was a strong currency during that period
(C) Many people turned to alternative renewable energy sources because of high oil prices
(D) If the price of oil is high for a short time it does not necessarily result in a drop in consumption
(E) People did not control their demand for fuel then which created the current economic slowdown
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following factors is not responsible for the current drop in oil prices ?
(A) Economic crisis in America, European and Asian nations
(B) Speculation in oil markets
(C) Weakening of the dollar
(D) Political stability in oil exporting countries
(E) All the above are not responsible for the current drop in oil prices
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. OPEC was established in 1970 to protect the interests of oil importing countries
2. When demand for oil exceeds supply there is a sharp rise in price
3. Today futures trading markets set the oil prices to a large extent
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 & 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. Which of the following is the function of OPEC ?
(A) Controlling speculation in oil
(B) Ensuring profits are equally distributed to all its members
(C) Monitoring inflation in oil prices and taking necessary steps to lower it
(D) Guaranteeing political instability in oil exporting countries does not impact output
(E) Determining prices of crude oil
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. INCULCATE
(A) Modify
(B) Construct
(C) Initiate
(D) Fix
(E) Instill
Ans : (D)
12. FUELLING
(A) Incentive
(B) Supplying
(C) Stimulating
(D) Irritating
(E) Restoring
Ans : (C)
13. DENT
(A) Reduction
(B) Break
(C) Tear
(D) Breach
(E) Split
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. CONVERSELY
(A) Compatibly
(B) Similarly
(C) Likely
(D) Aligning
(E) Resembling
Ans : (B)
15. WEAKEN
(A) Powerful
(B) Nourish
(C) Intense
(D) Boost
(E) Energise
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
16. We have hired an advertising agency to prepare a campaign to encourage people votes.
(A) People from voting
(B) Voting for people
(C) People to vote
(D) Votes by people
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
17. During the training programme the new recruits will be briefed about how their role in the new organisation.
(A) What their roles
(B) About their role
(C) For its roles
(D) Which are their role
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
18. The equipment is in such poor condition that we have no alternative to buy new ones.
(A) Many alternative like
(B) Any alternative except
(C) No other alternative
(D) No alternative but
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
19. Since the deadline has been changed from next week to this Thursday you should give this work priority.
(A) Be given this work priority
(B) Not give priority this work
(C) Prioritised this work
(D) Priority this work
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
20. After the success of our project we have been receiving more requests than we do not have the resources to handle them.
(A) Many requests but
(B) Most of the requests
(C) More requests that
(D) Too many requests
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D).One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. The document (A) he gave me was long and complicated (B) and I struggled (C) to understand (D) it. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)
22. We shall have to await (A) and see if these measures (B) are sufficient (C) to address (D) the problem. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
23. They are negotiating (A) to try and reach (B) an agreement which will beneficial (C) everyone concerned. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
24. The company has decided (A) to allott (B) a substantial (C) portion (D) of its profits to research and development. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)
25. It remains (A) to be seen whether (B) these reforms (C) will be acceptable (D) by the Board. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) For instance, if we measure the room temperature continuously and plot its graph with time on X-axis and temperature on the Y-axis,we get a continuous waveform, which is an analog signal. Analog is always continuous.
(2) The absence or presence of something can be used to plot a digital signal.
(3) An analog signal is a continuously varying signal, similar to a sinusoidal waveform.
(4) Any signal can be classified into one of the two types : analog and digital.
(5) In contrast, a digital signal takes the form of pulses,where we have something or nothing.
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
27. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. He has taken care to (A) / compliance with the norms (B) / so he expects the proposal (C) / to be approved without delay. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
32. Under the terms of the new deal (A) / the channel can broadcast (B) / the next cricket tournament to be (C) / played among India and Australia. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
33. Our equipment gets damage (A) / very often in summer (B) / because there are (C) / frequent power cuts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
34. We have received many (A) / of the letters from customers (B) / asking us to extend (C) / the deadline to repay their loans. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
35. Since I had lived there (A) / for many years the villagers (B) / were very comfortable talked (C) / to me about their problems. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
36. We have been under (A) / a lot of pressure to (B) / open fifty new stores (C) / by the ending of the year. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
37. The government has (A) / launched many creative schemes (B) / to make banking services (C) / available to everyone. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
38. The company is in debt (A) / and has been unable (B) / to pay their employees’ salaries (C) / for the past six months. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
39. This is turned out to be (A) / one of our most successful projects (B) / and we have made quite (C) / a large profit from it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
40. A non banking financial company is a (A) / financial institution similarly to a bank (B) / but it cannot issue (C) / cheque books to customers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
On October 2, 1983 the Grameen Bank Project …(41)… the Grameen Bank. We invited the Finance Minister to be the Chief Guest at our …(42)… ceremony. But when the Ministry came to …(43)… that the ceremony would take place in a remote district, they said it would not be an …(44)… place to launch a Bank and that the ceremony should be …(45)… in Dhaka so that all the top Government Officials could …(46)… We stood firm and …(47)… to them that we did not work in urban areas so it made no …(48)… to have the ceremony in a city …(49)… we had no borrowers. We had the ceremony in a big open field with the Finance Minister present as Chief Guest. For all of us who had worked so hard to …(50)… this it was a dream come true.
41. (A) reorganised
(B) merged
(C) named
(D) converted
(E) became
Ans : (E)
42. (A) opening
(B) closing
(C) dedicated
(D) inaugurate
(E) induction
Ans : (A)
43. (A) reveal
(B) know
(C) aware
(D) inform
(E) acquaint
Ans : (B)
44. (A) excellent
(B) available
(C) inauspicious
(D) appropriate
(E) obvious
Ans : (D)
45. (A) invited
(B) assembled
(C) done
(D) shifted
(E) held
Ans : (E)
46. (A) present
(B) accompany
(C) attend
(D) involve
(E) entertain
Ans : (C)
47. (A) apologised
(B) told
(C) explained
(D) denied
(E) refused
Ans : (C)
48. (A) difference
(B) sense
(C) difficulty
(D) meaning
(E) point
Ans : (B)
49. (A) where
(B) while
(C) that
(D) however
(E) which
Ans : (A)
50. (A) obey
(B) achieve
(C) discover
(D) built
(E) perform
Ans : (B)
Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 14-12-2008)
Professional Knowledge : Solved Paper
1. How many mango trees will be accommodated with a spacing of 5•0 m x 5•0 m in an area one Hectare ?
(A) 400 tree/ha
(B) 750 tree/ha
(C) 800 tree/ha
(D) 850 tree/ha
(E) 900 tree/ha
2. Of the Total Net Bank Credit (NBC) of the Public Sector Banks at the end of March 2007, what is the share of Agricultural Lending (Direct and Indirect) ?
(A) 13•6 per cent
(B) 14•6 per cent
(C) 15•6 per cent
(D) 16•6 per cent
(E) 17•6 per cent
3. What is the average yield per lactation in buffalo in India ?
(A) 1200 kg
(B) 1250 kg
(C) 1300 kg
(D) 1350 kg
(E) 1400 kg
4. Which one of the following Districts of Andhra Pradesh is considered as the ‘Hub of Fresh Fish Farming’ ?
(A) Nellore
(B) Guntur
(C) Krishna
(D) Godavari
(E) Anantpur
5. At present, per capita availability of milk in India is about—
(A) 200 gram per day
(B) 210 gram per day
(C) 215 gram per day
(D) 220 gram per day
(E) 225 gram per day
6. Under the cold storage, this crop requires 0-1 degree Celsius temperature and 98–100 per cent humidity ……… .
(A) Brinjal
(B) Bhindi
(C) Peas
(D) Grape
(E) Banana
7. This Hybrid variety of Sorghum (Jowar) is high yielding, tolerant to shoot fly, stemborer, with good roti making qualities suitable for Maharashtra state under Kharif and Rabi Seasons—
(A) AKSV 13 R
(B) SPV 1155 (Variety)
(C) SHD 9690 (Hybrid)
(D) DSV 5 (Variety)
(E) DSV 4 (Variety)
8. Which one of the following Agrofood sector in India has ‘Highest Level of Processing’ (percentage of total production) ?
(A) Fruits and Vegetables
(B) Milk and Milk Products
(C) Buffalo Meat
(D) Poultry Product
(E) Marine Products
9. This Micro Finance Institution (MFI) in India, is one of the fastest growing MFI in the world with annual growth rate of 200 per cent—
(A) PRADHAN
(B) BASIX
(C) SKS
(D) MYRADA
(E) Sadaguru Seva Trust
10. This Sunflower Hybrid Variety is tall (150 cm–180 cm), early in maturity (95 days), yields 1•7 tonnes to 2•0 tonnes per hectare, is recommended for cultivation at all India level—
(A) KBSH 44 (Hybrid)
(B) KBSH 41 (Hybrid)
(C) KBSH 42 (Hybrid)
(D) LSFH 35 (Maruti-Hybrid)
(E) PSFH 118 (Hybrid)
11. As on March 2007, of the total Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) issued to farmers by Formal Financial Institutions in India, the share of commercial banks is about—
(A) 37 per cent
(B) 45 per cent
(C) 47 per cent
(D) 49 per cent
(E) 51 per cent
12. During the last four decades, there had ‘Not been any meaningful gain in production’ of this group of crops in India ……… .
(A) Oilseed crops
(B) Plantation crops
(C) Aromatic and Medicinal plants
(D) Horticultural crops
(E) Pulse crops
13. Which one of the following countries, ranked first in the Inland Fisheries production in 2004-05 ?
(A) Japan
(B) United States
(C) China
(D) India
(E) Thailand
14. What percentages of total cultivable area in India, is presently under ‘Fodder’ production ?
(A) 3•60 per cent
(B) 4•60 per cent
(C) 5•60 per cent
(D) 6•60 per cent
(E) 7•60 per cent
15. This country ranked first in production of ‘Mushrooms’ in the world—
(A) China
(B) Nepal
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Indonesia
(E) Brazil
16. In which one of the following states, more than 2,000 ‘Vermicomposting units’ started by individuals and/or organization in rural and urban centres ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Karnataka
17. Nearly 35 per cent of the total ‘Fish Processing Facilities’ in India is concentrated in this state—
(A) Goa
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Karnataka
18. This is a premier Institute/Board/Authority set up by Government of India for providing technical and financial support for creation of postharvest infrastructure for Horticultural crops in India—
(A) APEDA
(B) NCDC
(C) NHB
(D) MPEDA
(E) None of these
19. Which one of the following crops you will suggest to a Big Farmer for getting higher yields and good income under the ‘Protected cultivation’ or under ‘Green-House condition’ ?
(A) Coloured Capsicum
(B) Vegetable Nursery
(C) Brinjal
(D) Sweet Corn
(E) Lettuce
20. Which one of the following Private Corporate Companies in India is a leader in organized sector producing ‘Potato chips’ in India ?
(A) ITC
(B) HLL
(C) Clean Food
(D) Pepsi Co.
(E) GD Foods
21. In which one of the following Indian states, percentage of total cultivable area under Horticultural crops is only 2•75 per cent ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) Uttar Pradesh
22. What percentage of ‘All Economically Productive women population’ in India are engaged in Agriculture including animal husbandry and fisheries ?
(A) 38 per cent
(B) 48 per cent
(C) 58 per cent
(D) 68 per cent
(E) 78 per cent
23. In which year, the ‘Varsha Bima Yojana’ (Insurance against the adverse incidence of rainfall) was started in India ?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
(E) 2008
24. Which one of the following states, the extent of financial exclusion is between 50 to 75 per cent ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jharkhand
(E) West Bengal
25. A field of work in which people aim to improve the access of rural communities to efficient, sustainable financial services is known as or categorized as—
(A) Agricultural Finance
(B) Rural Finance
(C) Micro Finance
(D) Financial Institution
(E) Financial Intermediary
26. The Science of cultivation and harvesting of fruits is called ‘Pomology’, however, of the following fruits, this fruit crop presently is not covered under the ‘Pomology’—
(A) Water-melon
(B) Banana
(C) Strawberry
(D) Sapota
(E) Custard Apple
27. The ‘Productivity of Banana’ (yield per hectare) is highest in this state—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Gujarat
28. Pepsi Co. started Contract farming in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh for preparation of—
(A) Tomato purees
(B) Basmati Rice
(C) Groundnut Butter
(D) Sunflower Oil
(E) Chilli Paste for Export
29. At present, how many National Research Institutes are working on Development of Products/crops under ‘Agricultural Biotechnologies’ in India ?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
(E) 40
30. ‘Shifting Cultivation’ is practiced in India covering about 14•66 lakh hectare area, where in this state ranked first with 3•75 lakh hectare—
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Manipur
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Tripura
31. Which one of the following flower crops is native of India ?
(A) Gladious
(B) Bougainvillea
(C) Tuberose
(D) Orchids
(E) All these
32. What is the Total Plan allocation (Rs. crores) for development of Rainfed/Dryland Agriculture in the XIth Five Year Plan Period (2007-08 to 2011-2012) ?
(A) Rs. 65,000 crore
(B) Rs. 70,000 crore
(C) Rs. 75,000 crore
(D) Rs. 80,000 crore
(E) Rs. 85,000 crore
33. As on March 31, 2007, how many of the Public Sector Banks had achieved Direct Agricultural Lending Target (13•5 per cent of Net Bank Credit) stipulated by the RBI ?
(A) Eight
(B) Nine
(C) Ten
(D) Eleven
(E) Twelve
34. This ‘Mango Hybrid Variety’ is early maturity, dwarf and having attractive colour, suitable for ‘Chotanagpur Region’ for the India—
(A) Amrapali
(B) Safed Maldah
(C) Malika
(D) Gulab Khas
(E) Ratna
35. Production period in case of tea after gestation period is to the extant of …… .
(A) 100 years
(B) 50 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 10 years
(E) 5 years
36. Recently, this Public Sector Bank, had launched an innovation called ‘Village Knowledge Centre’ wherein technology is used to help the farmers improve his productivity—
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) United Bank of India
(D) United Commercial Bank
(E) Union Bank of India
37. As on 31 March, 2008, which one of the following Microfinance Programmes have covered the largest number of BPL/poor families in India ?
(A) SHG-Bank Linkage Programme
(B) SIDBI Foundation for Micro Credit (SFMC)
(C) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK)
(D) Friends of Women’s World Banking (FWWB)
(E) Rashtriya Grameen Vikas Nidhi (RGVN)
38. Which one of the following is the name of a fungicide which can move mainly upwards within the plant and kill the pathogen away from the point of application ?
(A) Semesan
(B) Demosan
(C) Cuprosan
(D) Tulisan
(E) Ceresan
39. As on March 2008, how many ‘No Frill Accounts’ were opened by Banks under Financial Inclusion ?
(A) 12 million
(B) 13 million
(C) 14 million
(D) 15 million
(E) 16 million
40. This state is the Leading Producer of Vegetables in India contributing around 19 per cent of country’s production from 17 per cent of the total area under vegetable—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) West Bengal
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Karnataka
41. According to the RBI Report (2001-02), this Banking Region of the country has ‘Highest Flow of Institutional Credit for Agriculture’ in terms of amount of credit extended in Rs. per hectare of Gross Cropped Area—
(A) Northern Region
(B) North-Eastern Region
(C) Eastern Region
(D) Western Region
(E) Southern Region
42. Based on the Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India (RBI, 2007), the number of rural branches of scheduled Commercial Banks in India as on 30th June, 2007, were—
(A) 32,303
(B) 32,121
(C) 30,775
(D) 30,500
(E) 30,633
43. At present (2006), the estimated population of Tractors (Number of Tractors) in India is about—
(A) 28 lakhs
(B) 29 lakhs
(C) 30 lakhs
(D) 31 lakhs
(E) 32 lakhs
44. This being the only country in the world producing all four known commercial varieties of silk viz., Mulberry, Tasar, Eri and Muga—
(A) China
(B) Brazil
(C) Japan
(D) India
(E) Korean Republic
45. Which one of the following Pearl Millet (Bajra) variety is early maturity, with high yield and suitable for Haryana State under irrigated and rainfed situation ?
(A) GHB-757
(B) HHB-146
(C) GHB-538
(D) HHB-94
(E) RHB-121
46. Of the 31 Districts identified in four states as having higher incidence of farmers suicides due to economic distress. How many of the 31 economically distress districts belonged to Andhra Pradesh ?
(A) 10 Districts
(B) 12 Districts
(C) 14 Districts
(D) 16 Districts
(E) 18 Districts
47. Approximately, what percentage of Total Grape produced in India every year dried for Raising Purpose ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 12 per cent
(C) 14 per cent
(D) 16 per cent
(E) 18 per cent
48. The Head Quarter of ‘National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) which was established on 10th July, 2006 for realizing full potential of Indian Fisheries sector is located at—
(A) Rajendranagar (Hyderabad) A.P.
(B) Cochi (Kerala)
(C) Mangalore (Karnataka)
(D) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(E) Bhubaneshwar (Orissa)
49. This Central Cattle Breeding Farm is producing ‘HFx Tharparkar Crossbred Bulls’ for breeding purpose in India—
(A) Andeshnagar (U.P.)
(B) Dhamrod (Gujarat)
(C) Hassergatha (Karnataka)
(D) Suratgarh (Rajasthan)
(E) Alamdhi (Tamil Nadu)
50. Which one of the following countries, ‘Annual Per Capita Consumption’ of Wine is highest (50 litres) ?
(A) China
(B) Australia
(C) USA
(D) France
(E) Germany
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (E) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (E)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (E) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (E) 40. (B)
41. (E) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (C)
Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 21-12-2008)
General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. Which of the following crops cannot be called a Plantation Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Oil Palm
(C) Rubber
(D) Coffee
(E) Coconut
2. Which of the following is the name of the spacecraft launched by India as a part of Mission to Moon ?
(A) Moon-1
(B) Chandrayaan-1
(C) Kalpana
(D) RADOM
(E) None of these
3. As per the reports published by the World Bank what percentage of Indian population lives below the new International Poverty Line ?
(A) 30%
(B) 62%
(C) 52%
(D) 42%
(E) 68%
4. Which of the following is not a ‘Social Sector Programme’ run by the Govt. of India ?
(A) National Rural Health Mission
(B) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
(D) Integrated Child Development Services
(E) Bharat Nirman
5. In order to augment Credit flow to small and poor borrowers, commercial banks are required to provide how much percentage of their priority sector advances to weaker sections of the society ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 25%
(E) 35%
6. As reported in some newspapers/magazines a large number of children/infants are falling sick because of the use of melamine contaminated dairy products in the world. Due to this many countries like Africa, Japan, Singapore, etc. have stopped import of these products. Which of the following countries was the main exporter of such products ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Pakistan
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the programme launched in India for the economic empowerment of persons with severe to profound disabilities ?
(A) ARUNIM
(B) NREGA
(C) GCMMF
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SCOPE
8. As per the recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission, what will be the share of the State Govts. in total shareable proceeds of Central taxes ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20·5%
(C) 22%
(D) 30·5%
(E) 35·5%
9. Which of the following is/are objective(s) of the ‘Rural Drinking water supply Programme’ launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Supply safe drinking water to all villages.
2. Assisting local communities to maintain sources of safe drinking water in good condition.
3. Giving special attention for water supply to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following is not a Source of Tax Revenue collected by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Custom Duty
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Income Tax
(D) Service Tax
(E) Dividends and Profits
11. Asif Ali Zardari who has taken over as the new President of Pakistan is from which of the following political Parties ?
(A) Pakistan Muslim League
(B) Awami League
(C) Pakistan People’s Party
(D) Pakistan National Congress
(E) None of these
12. India is now out of the nuclear sanction imposed on it about 16 years back. This sanction was imposed by which of the following organisations ?
(A) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
(B) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
(C) INTERPOL
(D) UN Security Council
(E) None of these
13. Very often we read in newspapers about the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Through Automatic Route. What is meant by Automatic Route ?
1. It is a process which allows foreign investors to trade shares of any Indian Company on day-to-day basis openly in stock markets.
2. It is a process by which Indian Companies are allowed to issue shares to any foreign investor as a part of their paid up Capital in the project in which they have made an investment.
3. It is a process in which all foreign investors are asked to make all their investments in Indian projects in rupee currency only and that too in cash only. Technical knowhow or any other type of participation is not allowed as a part of investment.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
14. The Govt. of India is planning to introduce a ‘National Security Exception Act’ in the Parliament, which will work on the lines of Exxon-Florio provision prevalent in the USA. What is the purpose of the proposed Act ?
1. The Act is a part of Indo-US Nuclear Pact as this only will allow India to start building nuclear facilities in the country.
2. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to stall any foreign Company from acquiring any local asset (FDI) if it is found to be compromising with national security.
3. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to control terrorism in a better way as all e-services will be under thorough scrutiny by security agencies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
15. Which of the following is not included in the list of UN Millennium Goals ?
(A) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(B) Develop a global partnership for development
(C) Promote Gender equality
(D) Reduce Child Mortality
(E) Make World Nuclear free
16. Which of the following agencies/bodies has asked all foreign funds to come forward and register itself as Foreign Institutional Investments (FIIs) prior to any investment in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IBA
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
17. Who amongst the following Indian players could not win any medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 ?
(A) Sushil Kumar
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Anjali Bhagwat
(D) Jitendra Kumar
(E) Saina Nehwal
18. India recently signed an agreement in the field of hydrocarbon with which of the following countries for which Hernan Martinez Torres, Minister of Energy of that country was in India ?
(A) Zambia
(B) Ukraine
(C) Colombia
(D) Turkey
(E) None of these
19. Which of the following countries has asked India to scrap Kosi River Pact, the river which created a havoc in Bihar recently ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) China
(D) Nepal
(E) Bhutan
20. Which of the following is the amount of the relief package announced by the Prime Minister of India for Flood-hit Bihar ?
(A) Rs. 1000 crore
(B) Rs. 1010 crore
(C) Rs. 1050 crore
(D) Rs. 1100 crore
(E) Rs. 1120 crore
21. As reported in the newspapers some people are of the opinion that India may not be able to achieve its export targets set for the year 2008-09. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) of their worry ?
1. There was a major flood in some parts of Bihar, Orissa, Gujarat and some other States recently, owing to which fruit/horticultural crop has not reached export markets in sufficient quantity.
2. Rupee is frequently getting depreciated against US dollar.
3. Some major economies of the world are passing through the phase of economic recession. Hence many export orders are cancelled.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3 only
(E) None of these
22. While talking to the Press/Media/Group of experts in Singapore the former Governor of RBI, Dr. Y. V. Reddy, said that the impact of global financial turmoil will be less on Asia. What in opinion of the people like Dr. Reddy are the strengths of Asian Financial System which will help it to sustain the turmoil ? (Pick-up correct statement(s) as your answer.)
1. Banks in Asia are better capitalized and are not much exposed to sophisticated derivatives.
2. Asian economies were in a high growth mode and hence they have better ability to withstand the crisis.
3. Most of the Asian countries used to enjoy a strong fiscal position and current account surpluses in the past. This has given them an ability to bail out a failing financial institution in case it appeared.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
23. Subsequent to the RBI’s move of reducing the CRR, the industry Chambers in India are demanding for softened interest rates. How will this demand of softened interest rates help the industry ?
1. It will give a push-up to new investments and augment the demand of new proposals for more credits.
2. The move will help in creation of many new employment opportunities.
3. It will strengthen the position of the Stock Markets in India.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
24. The recent decision of the RBI to cut Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 150 basis points (October 2008) will be able to infuse how much liquidity into the market ?
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 30,000 crore
(C) Rs. 40,000 crore
(D) Rs. 50,000 crore
(E) None of these
25. As per the reports published in the newspapers recently Indian Rupee was on depreciation and there was a time when the depreciation was about 17% in six months. Which of the following was/were the main cause(s) of this continuous fall ?
1. Foreign fund flow was very low.
2. There was heavy demand for the US dollar in the local forex market.
3. RBI all of a sudden decided to lower the CRR.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
26. The issues related to the Land Acquisition for setting-up ‘Special Economic Zones (SEZs)’ is frequently seen in the newspapers these days. As per existing laws maximum how much area is allowed to be acquired for a SEZ ?
(A) 1000 hectares
(B) 2000 hectares
(C) 3000 hectares
(D) 5000 hectares
(E) None of these
27. Shibu Soren took over as the new Chief Minister of—
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Uttarakhand
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following was one of the major point of disagreement between various countries over which the talks at World Trade Organisation (WTO) got collapsed recently ?
(A) Subsidy to farmers
(B) Providing special status to India
(C) Drafting a new constitution for WTO
(D) Drafting a common Trade Policy for next 5 years
(E) None of these
29. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Lifetime Achievement Award at the 54th National Film Award Ceremony ?
(A) Dilip Kumar
(B) Shashi Kapoor
(C) Rekha
(D) Hema Malini
(E) Mrinal Sen
30. The support price of which of the following commodities was raised by 33%-40% recently to make it Rs. 2,500 per quintal ?
(A) Cotton
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Wheat
(D) Palm Oil
(E) None of these
31. Who amongst the following cricketers made a World Record of 12 Sixes in a One Day International Match recently ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Xavier Marshall
(C) Muttiah Muralitharan
(D) Mike Hussey
(E) None of these
32. Which of the following cities became the first 100% e-literate city of India ?
(A) Pune
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kozhikode
(D) Jaipur
(E) Bangalore
33. As we all know India will continue to be a net importer of steel as the demand of the same is likely to increase by about 11% in days to come. What is the percentage growth in inland production of steel ?
(A) 3%
(B) 5%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 10%
34. International Literacy Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) September 18
(B) September 8
(C) October 18
(D) October 8
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following teams won the Durand Cup Football played in New Delhi in September 2008 ?
(A) Tata Motors
(B) Indian Railways
(C) Churchill Brothers
(D) Mahindra United
(E) None of these
36. Which of the following is/are part of New National Biofuel Policy 2008 launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Minimum Support Price with a provision of periodic revision.
2. No duties or taxes would be levied on Biodiesel.
3. Biodiesel production to be taken up from non-edible oil seeds in waste/marginal lands.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
37. Who amongst the following was given the Mahatma Gandhi Award for Reconciliation and Peace 2008 ?
(A) Akio Ishii
(B) Bill Gates
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Prince Charles
(E) None of these
38. Which of the following is/are some of the recommendations of the Raghurajan Committee on financial sector reforms ?
1. Target inflation control rather than controlling money supply.
2. Open Corporate and Govt. Bond markets.
3. Provide liberal regulations for mergers and acquisitions.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
39. Which of the following countries is passing through a crisis called as ‘Darfur Humanitarian Crisis’ ?
(A) `Uganda
(B) Somalia
(C) Sudan
(D) Sierra Leone
(E) None of these
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Inside Third World’ ?
(A) Amit Choudhury
(B) William Goldings
(C) V. Harrison
(D) Nana Palkiwala
(E) None of these
41. The ‘18th Safety Olympics’ was organised in—
(A) Seoul
(B) Berlin
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) New York
42. Mahendra Kapoor who died recently was a famous—
(A) Politician
(B) Social Worker
(C) Journalist
(D) Sportsman
(E) Playback Singer
43. The Prime Minister of India recently released the Economic Outlook for 2008-09. According to the document Indian economy will grow at what rate during the period of the review ?
(A) 7·7%
(B) 8%
(C) 8·33%
(D) 9·7%
(E) None of these
44. The 48th National Open Athletics Championship was held at—
(A) Kochi
(B) Delhi
(C) Jaipur
(D) Lucknow
(E) Panaji
45. Which of the following countries refused to ratify the ‘Lisbon Treaty’, a very crucial agreement for reforms in the constitution of the European Union ?
(A) Russia
(B) Poland
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) Italy
46. Which of the following is not an Employment Generating Programme of the Govt. of India ?
(A) NREGA
(B) SGRY
(C) SGSY
(D) TRYSEM
(E) CAMELS
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Other Side of Midnight’ ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Katherine Mayo
(C) Ernest Hamingway
(D) H. G. Wells
(E) Sydney Sheldon
48. China recently resolved its border dispute with which of the following countries ?
(As per agreement Yinlong island will be handed over to China.)
(A) Mongolia
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Taiwan
(E) Russia
49. Agha Khan Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Badminton
(D) Golf
(E) Hockey
50. Two new countries recently signed the protocols to become the member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
These countries are—
(A) Ukraine–Croatia
(B) Croatia–Albania
(C) Georgia–Russia
(D) Georgia–Croatia
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (E)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (E) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (E)
41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (E) 47. (E) 48. (E) 49. (E) 50. (E)
Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2009
Professional Knowledge (Agriculture) : Solved Paper
(Held on 4-1-2009)
1. This ‘Biofertilizer’ is a nitrogen fixing micro-organism, beneficial for non-leguminous as well as for vegetable crops—
(A) Rhizobium (RHZ)
(B) Azotobacter (AZT)
(C) Azospirillum (AZS)
(D) Blue Green Algae (BGA)
(E) Phosphate Solubilising (PSB) mobilizing bacteria
2. What percentage of total area under Banana cultivation in India presently, is cultivated by using Tissue-cultured (GMO) plantlets ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 15 per cent
(C) 20 per cent
(D) 25 per cent
(E) 30 per cent
3. As per the recent ‘Micro-credit Summit (2007)’, what percentage of total Micro Finance Institutions (MFls) in India serves less than, 10,000 clients (number of clients per MFI) ?
(A) 70 per cent
(B) 75 per cent
(C) 80 per cent
(D) 85 per cent
(E) 90 per cent
4. Fisheries Sector in India contributes what percentage of Agricultural—‘Gross Domestic Product’ (GDP), as on March 2007 ?
(A) 2·5 per cent
(B) 3·5 per cent
(C) 4·5 per cent
(D) 5·5 per cent
(E) 6·5 per cent
5. This agricultural product/horticultural crop requires 2 degree Celsius temperature and 90 per cent humidity for storing in the cold storage—
(A) Mango pulp
(B) Roses
(C) Mushroom
(D) Milk Products
(E) Fish Products
6. The plan outlay for Irrigation Sector to total plan outlay in India was highest (12·5 per cent) in this Five Year Plan (FYP)—
(A) VIth Five Year Plan
(B) VIIth Five Year Plan
(C) VIIIth Five Year Plan
(D) IXth Five Year Plan
(E) Xth Five Year Plan
7. The recommended ratio of use of NPK, the chemical fertilizer by farmers in India is—
(A) 2 : 2 : 2
(B) 3 : 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 2 : 1
(D) 5 : 2 : 1
(E) 6 : 2 : 1
8. This state is a leader in production and export of the Gherkins (Hybrid Cucumber) under the Contract Farming—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
(E) Maharashtra
9. What should be the optimum spacing (in meters) for planting ‘Pusa Nanha’ variety of Papaya under the High Density Planting ?
(A) 1·25 m × 1·25 m
(B) 1·50 m × 1·50 m
(C) 1·75 m × 1·75 m
(D) 2·00 m × 2·00 m
(E) 2·50 m × 2·50 m
10. Dramatic increase in food prices world over had severe consequences for third world countries (FAO, 2008). How many countries in the world are now facing food crisis, because of this phenomenon ?
(A) 35 countries
(B) 36 countries
(C) 37 countries
(D) 38 countries
(E) 39 countries
11. How many outbreaks of ‘Avian Influenza (H5N1)’ were recorded in West Bengal and Tripura during January 2008 and May 2008 ?
(A) 37
(B) 39
(C) 40
(D) 41
(E) 42
12. According to Dr. C. Rangarajan ‘Committee on Financial Inclusion (2007)’, what percentage of Rural Population in India holds Bank Account ?
(A) 18 per cent
(B) 24 per cent
(C) 31 per cent
(D) 35 per cent
(E) 40 per cent
13. Which one of the following Indian States is the largest beneficiary or gainer of the SGSY–credit extended by Banks
during 2006–07 ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these
14. This variety of Tomato is highyielding with good quality fruits and suitable for Jharkhand State for cultivation—
(A) Swarna Lalima
(B) Swarna Shyamali
(C) Swarna Pratibha
(D) Swarna Shree
(E) Swarna Manohar
15. How many plants/trees of Amrapali variety of mango could be profitably accommodated, when planted at 5·0 m × 5·0 m (square method) per hectare ?
(A) 1,400 plants
(B) 1,500 plants
(C) 1,600 plants
(D) 1,700 plants
(E) None of these
16. Which one of the following Brinjal hybrid varieties recently released suitable for U.P. Punjab, Bihar and Jharkhand—
(A) Kashi Sandesh
(B) Swarna Shakti
(C) Kashi Ganesh
(D) HA BH-17
(E) HA BH-3
17. ‘Sweta Seedless’ grape variety recently released by IIHRBangalore, is suitable for growing in—
(A) North India
(B) South India
(C) Western India
(D) Eastern India
(E) All over the country
18. Which one of the following rice/paddy hybrid varieties having superfine grain, aromatic, matured within 120-125 days and recently released for cultivation in Haryana, Delhi and Uttarakhand ?
(A) PA 6201
(B) Pusa RH 10
(C) KRH2
(D) RH 204
(E) Pant Sankar Dhan 3
19. Rabi Sorghum is an important crop suitable for ‘Rainfed Ecosystem’ of this State—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Gujarat
(D) Bihar
(E) Tamilnadu
20. This ‘Agro-Ecosystem’ is characterized by low, erratic rainfall with high coefficient of variation and frequent droughts in India—
(A) Irrigated agro-ecosystem
(B) Arid agro-ecosystem
(C) Coastal agro-ecosystem
(D) Rainfed agro-ecosystem
(E) Hill and Mountain agroecosystem
21. ‘Leaf Rust’ is a serious disease of this crop and till date, there is no effective and ecologically safe fungicide for controlling this disease—
(A) Sweet Potato
(B) Grape
(C) Rice
(D) Wheat
(E) Sorghum
22. What is botanical (Scientific) name of Safed Musli–a medicinal plant grown almost all over India ?
(A) Chlorophytum borivilianum
(B) Curculigo orchioides
(C) Piper longum
(D) Solanum surattense
(E) None of these
23. Central Institute of Post-Harvest Engineering and Technology is located at—
(A) Abohar (Punjab)
(B) Ludhiana (Punjab)
(C) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(D) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
(E) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
24. Which one of the following Castor hybrids, you will suggest for getting good yields for rainfed and irrigated areas of Rajasthan State ?
(A) RHC 1 (VP-1 × TMV5-1)
(B) DCH 6 (JP 65 × JI 96)
(C) DCH 519 (M574 × DCS 78)
(D) DCH 177 (DCP 9 × DCS 9)
(E) None of these
25. Which one of the following ‘mixed cropping’ pattern you would suggest to the farmers for getting higher economic benefits ?
(A) Bhindi + Spongegourd
(B) Mango + Turmeric
(C) Mango + Colocasia
(D) Mango + Groundnut
(E) Colocasia + Turmeric
26. Which one of the following States has created ‘Organic Commodities Board’ to promote and restore value of foodcrops, which are mostly grown on marginal lands ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(E) Uttarakhand
27. The Central Frozen Semen Production and Training Institute is one of the premier Institute of Animal Husbandry, is located at (HQ)—
(A) Hessarghatta (Karnataka)
(B) Sunabada (Orissa)
(C) Dhamrod (Gujarat)
(D) Suratgarh (Rajasthan)
(E) Andeshnagar (Uttarakhand)
28. What percentage of total cultivable area in India is under ‘Horticultural Crops’ ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 11 per cent
(C) 12 per cent
(D) 13 per cent
(E) 14 per cent
29. ‘National Agricultural Insurance Scheme’ (NAIS) was in operation in India since—
(A) Rabi season 1999–2000
(B) Kharif season 1998–1999
(C) Rabi season 2000–2001
(D) Kharif season 2000–2001
(E) None of these
30. ‘Pusa Arunima’ is an improved hybrid variety of this crop relased by IARI, New Delhi—
(A) Mango
(B) Guava
(C) Grape
(D) Citrus
(E) Pomegranate
31. As on 2007, how many Indian States/Union Territories (UTs) have partially modified their respective Acts under the ‘Agricultural Marketing Reforms’ ?
(A) 12 States/UTs
(B) 13 States/UTs
(C) 14 States/UTs
(D) 15 States/UTs
(E) 16 States/UTs
32. What is the total ‘Export Earnings’ (Rs. crore) in 2004-05 from livestock, poultry and related products in India ?
(A) Rs. 2200 crore
(B) Rs. 2250 crore
(C) Rs. 2300 crore
(D) Rs. 2350 crore
(E) Rs. 5150 crore
33. Which one of the following States is leading one (Ranked first) in production of ‘Cut Flowers’ in India ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) West Bengal
34. To accommodate 277 plants of ‘Acid Lime’ in one hectare area, what should be the spacing between two plants ?
(A) 5·5 m × 5·5 m
(B) 6·0 m × 6·0 m
(C) 6·5 m × 6·5 m
(D) 7·0 m × 7·0 m
(E) None of these
35. Which one of the following ‘Maize Hybrids’, you will suggest to the farmers of Punjab State for growing in ‘Rabi season’ for Higher Yields ?
(A) Vivek Hybrid
(B) Vivek Hybrid 15
(C) Hybrid Sheetal
(D) Deccan 115
(E) Pratap Hybrid Makka 1
36. According to ‘National Sample Survey Organisation’ (NSSO 2006), which one of the following
Information Sources is most availed by the Indian farmers in getting farm information ?
(A) Radio/TV
(B) Fram Input Dealers
(C) Progressive Farmers
(D) Krishi Vigyan Kendras
(E) Agricultural University Specialist
37. More than 40 per cent of the 197 Private Sugar Mills in India are located in this State—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Karnataka
38. What is the subsidy component to the total loan amount/total investment available to SC, ST, woman and other disadvantaged sections candidates under the scheme of ‘Establishing Agriclinic and Agribusiness Centres’ by the Agri/Vet/Horticultural graduates ?
(A) 25 per cent
(B) 33·33 per cent
(C) 50 per cent
(D) 60 per cent
(E) 80 per cent
39. In which one of the following years, the NABARD was established in India—as an Apex Financial Institution for Rural and Agricultural Development ?
(A) 1980
(B) 1981
(C) 1982
(D) 1983
(E) 1984
40. As per the RBI’s directives, Banks should not insist upon the margin/collateral security for the loans to borrowers upto the limits of—
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 75,000
(C) Rs. 1,00,000
(D) Rs. 1,25,000
(E) Rs. 1,50,000
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (E) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (E) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (E) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)
Punjab National Bank (Agriculture Officers) Exam, 2009
English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 4-1-2009)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
We should recognise the indebtedness of the country to its farm families who toil to safeguard national food security. Loan waiver is the price we have to pay for the neglect of rural India over the past several decades. There has been a gradual decline in investment in key sectors related to agriculture such as infrastructure, marketing, post harvest technology etc. The four crore farmers whose debt is to be relieved will be eligible for institutional credit for their cultivation expenses during Kharif 2008. The challenge is to prevent them from getting into the debt trap again. For this purpose the Central and various State governments should set up an Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium, comprising scientists, panchayat raj officials and others relevant to assisting farmers to improve the profitability and productivity of their farms in an environmentally sustainable manner. The smaller the farm, the greater is the need for marketable surplus to reduce indebtedness.
The Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium should aim to get all the four crore farmers all the benefits of the government schemes such as the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, Irrigation Benefit Programme and others. If this is done, every farm family released from the debt trap should be able to produce at least an additional half tonne per hectare of foodgrains. This should help increase food production by about 20 million tonnes by 2008-10. At a time when global and national food stocks are dwindling and prices are rising, this will be a timely gain for our national food security. We need to ensure that the outcome of the debt waiver is enhanced farmers’ income and production. The prevailing gap between potential and actual yields in the crops of rainfed areas such as pulses and oilseeds is over 200 per cent even with the necessary technologies on the shelf. We are now importing without duty large quantities of pulses and oilseeds. If helped, farmers can produce these at a lower cost.
Opportunities for assured and remunerative marketing are essential if loan waiver is not to become a recurring event leading to the destruction of the credit system. This is why the Minimum Support Price is necessary for all, not just for a few crops which is the case at present. This is the single most effective step to make loan waivers history. There is another urgent step which needs to be taken. The loan waiver does not cover those who borrow from moneylenders. It will not be possible for the government to scrutinise the veracity of such private deals but steps can be taken such as giving them Smart Cards which will entitle them to essential inputs like seeds and fertilizers. The gram sabha can be entrusted with the task of identifying these farmers so that there is transparency in the process and elimination of the chances for falsification and corruption. Fear of occasional misuse should not come in the way of enabling millions of poor farmers who have borrowed from informal sources if we are to achieve the goal of four per cent growth in agriculture.
1. What is the likely impact of ensuring farmers’ benefit from government schemes ?
1. They can use the credit from these schemes to repay moneylenders.
2. The government can control the price rise.
3. Increased agricultural production.
(A) Both 1 and 2
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
2. Why does the author feel that rural India has been overlooked in the past ?
1. Institutional credit was only made available for Kharif crops.
2. Drop in investment in central areas related to agriculture.
3. Records of those eligible for loan waivers have not been maintained over time.
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
3. How can small farmers avoid debt ?
(A) They need to acquire additional land holdings
(B) They need to take advantage of both government schemes as well as credit from moneylenders
(C) They have to ensure a sufficient amount of their farm produce is sold
(D) The Government should provide periodic loan waivers
(E) None of these
4. What is the objective of the Indebted Farmers’ Support Consortium ?
(A) It is a support group for the families of indebted farmers
(B) It has to devise new government schemes for farmers
(C) It has to track farmers eligible for government schemes
(D) It has to evaluate government schemes and weed out the inefficient ones
(E) None of these
5. What does the author mean by the phrase “indebtedness of the country to its farm families” ?
(A) If farmers are in debt it impacts the entire country
(B) Citizens should be grateful to farmers and their families for the hardships borne by them to cultivate crops
(C) India’s food production has fallen causing it to be in debt since it has to import food
(D) The number of farmers’ descendants taking up agriculture has fallen.
(E) None of these
6. What is the author’s opinion of recurring loan waivers ?
(A) They are beneficial to farmers
(B) They are detrimental to the system of lending.
(C) They will reduce the need for a Minimum Support Price for agricultural products
(D) Farmers will no longer be in debt to moneylenders
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The Minimum Support Price for agricultural products is yet to be implemented
(B) Loan waiver is a permanent solution to indebtedness of farmers
(C) Current agricultural growth is below four per cent
(D) India’s food production has increased in 2008
(E) Moneylenders benefit from loan waivers
8. Why does the loan waiver not cover credit taken from moneylenders ?
1. It is difficult to verify these contracts between farmers and moneylenders.
2. It will increase the deficit in the budget.
3. There is a risk that the funds may be misappropriated.
(A) Both 1 and 3
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
9. Why is there a vast gap in actual and potential yields of crops in rainfed areas ?
(A) The government prefers to import these crops at a lower rate
(B) No technological advances have been made to improve the growth of crops in these areas
(C) There is no Minimum Support Price available for these crops
(D) Farmers are forced to sell these crops at a low rate
(E) None of these
10. How does the government intend to ensure transparency in the Smart card issuance process ?
(A) Screening private players involved in the scheme
(B) Granting access to those farmers who register with their local moneylenders
(C) Providing cards which cannot be forged
(D) Regularly rotating members of the gram sabha so there is no corruption
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. assured
(A) insured
(B) definite
(C) doubted
(D) confident
(E) reliance
12. relieved
(A) exempted
(B) backed
(C) supported
(D) calmed
(E) substituted
13. gap
(A) hole
(B) break
(C) pause
(D) difference
(E) interruption
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. timely
(A) young
(B) lately
(C) overdue
(D) aged
(E) slowly
15. elimination
(A) authority
(B) forgiveness
(C) attack
(D) provision
(E) protection
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correcton is required, mark (E) as the answer.
16. In order to control rising prices the government has restricted the export of certain commodities.
(A) For control of raised
(B) In control of raised
(C) To control the rise
(D) By controlling rising
(E) No correction required
17. Over two crores will be required to renovate the building being damaged during the cyclone.
(A) that was damage
(B) which was damaged
(C) has been damaged
(D) been damaged
(E) No correction required
18. Small investors often suffer because of delays in getting its grievance redressed.
(A) their grievances redressed
(B) the grievances redress
(C) to redress grievance
(D) this grievances redressed
(E) No correction required
19. With the failure of the investment bank, the public’s confidence in the banking sector has been how badly shaken.
(A) so badly shaken
(B) that much shaky
(C) badly shaken
(D) too badly shaky
(E) No correction required
20. A consultant is been appointed to advise us on the viability of the project.
(A) appointed
(B) has been appointing
(C) will be appointed
(D) to be appointed
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) Expansion of retail banking especially has a lot of scope, since retail assets are just 22 per cent of the total banking assets.
(2) Where they do not find it viable to open branches they may open satellite offices in these areas.
(3) There is tremendous scope for the expansion of banking in India.
(4) Banks can also diversify beyond cities to semi-urban and rural areas.
(5) In these ways a transition from class banking to mass banking can take place.
(6) They can also collaborate with local stakeholders in order to extend microcredit services to those living there.
21. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
22. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
23. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
24. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
25. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Decades ago, China …(26)… the concept of ‘barefoot doctors’. They were community healthcare workers who successfully …(27)… the health of China’s villages. Following this example, many African, Asian and Latin American countries have started …(28)… programmes. The largest of such community health efforts is India’s National Rural Health Mission. In …(29)… over three years, the programme has mobilized over fifty thousand new community health workers, each …(30)… as ‘Asha’. This is short for ‘Accredited Social Health Activist’ and translated into Hindi is the word …(31)… hope.
Today technology companies and foundations are also joining the …(32)… to support community health workers. Mobile phone companies are …(33)… these workers with phones and support systems to obtain up to date medical information, call ambulances etc. In the …(34)… years, community health workers can thus help …(35)… the spread of many devastating but curable diseases.
26. (A) gives
(B) researches
(C) introduced
(D) originates
(E) enlightened
27. (A) improved
(B) entrusted
(C) fought
(D) cured
(E) dealt
28. (A) thousands
(B) alike
(C) imitated
(D) similar
(E) naming
29. (A) course
(B) less
(C) approximate
(D) period
(E) just
30. (A) referred
(B) known
(C) perceived
(D) regarded
(E) called
31. (A) denotes
(B) describes
(C) for
(D) explains
(E) means
32. (A) business
(B) membership
(C) scope
(D) effort
(E) purpose
33. (A) provided
(B) buying
(C) equipped
(D) supplied
(E) empowering
34. (A) coming
(B) next
(C) past
(D) few
(E) previous
35. (A) overlook
(B) curb
(C) protect
(D) enrich
(E) neglect
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (E)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (E) 16 (E) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (E) 24. (E) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (C)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (E) 34. (A) 35. (B)
Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 2-3-2008)
Reasoning Ability : Solved Paper
1. ‘34’ is related ‘12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to—
(A) 45
(B) 14
(C) 42
(D) 38
(E) 47
2. What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5
2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) None of these
3. Among P, Q, R, S, T and U, R is taller than only P and U. S is shorter than only T and Q. If each of them has a different height, who among them will be the third from top when they are arranged in descending order of their height ?
(A) R
(B) P
(C) S
(D) Q
(E) None of these
4. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 metres and again took a left turn and walked 10 metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped walking ?
(A) South
(B) South-West
(C) South-East
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D
(B) C E
(C) G I
(D) F H
(E) NL
6. How many such 7s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 5 and not immediately followed by 8 ?
2 3 5 7 8 9 3 4 5 7 6 1 9 3
5 7 4 8 3 2 5 7 8 8 9 2 5
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. If it is possible to form a number with the first, the fourth and the seventh digits of the number 4671358, which is the perfect sequare of a two-digit odd number, which of the following will be the digit in the tenth place of that two-digit odd number ? If no such number can be formed, give ‘O’ as the answer and if more than one such number can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer—
(A) 2
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) O
(E) X
8. Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is younger than only S and R and older than T. Who among them is the oldest ?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) P
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
9. In a certain code ‘59346’ is written as ‘$AD%F’ and ‘8173’ is written as ‘HB#D’. How is ‘9865’ written in that code ?
(A) H A F $
(B) A F H $
(C) A D F $
(D) B H F $
(E) None of these
10. If ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘K, denotes ‘–’, ‘T’ denotes ‘×’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then—
20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?
(A) 18
(B) – 6
(C) – 12
(D) – 18
(E) None of these
11. Pointing to a boy, Meena said “He is the only grandson of my grandfather”. How is the boy related to Meena ?
(A) Brother
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
12. B is sister of D. M is father of D. N. is sister of M. How is B related to N ?
(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Niece
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Fruit
(B) Flower
(C) Leaf
(D) Petal
(E) Tree
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 26
(B) 34
(C) 72
(D) 46
(E) 38
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Cuckoo
(B) Crow
(C) Bat
(D) Parrot
(E) Sparrow
16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TERMINATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
17. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the sixth and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer—
(A) E
(B) A
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Directions (Q. 18 to 24)—In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements : Some blades are papers. Some papers are books. Some books are pens.
Conclusions :I. Some pens are papers.
II. Some books are blades.
III. Some pens are blades.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) None follows
(E) Only II and III follow
19. Statements : Some pencils are marbles. All marbles are buses. Some buses are trucks.
Conclusions :I. Some trucks are pencils.
II. Some buses are pencils.
III. No truck is pencil.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only either I or III and II follow
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
20. Statements : Some trees are jungles. Some jungles are flowers. All flowers are streets.
Conclusions :I. Some streets are jungles.
II. Some streets are trees.
III. Some flowers are trees.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these
21. Statements : All desks are tables. All tables are chairs. Some chairs are sofas.
Conclusions :
I. Some sofas are desks.
II. Some chairs are desks.
III. Some tables are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
22. Statements : Some cycles are bikes. No bike is flower. All flowers are goats.
Conclusions :I. No goat is cycle.
II. Some flowers are cycles.
III. Some goats are bikes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
23. Statements : All rivers are hills. All hills are rocks. Some rocks are sticks.
Conclusions :I. Some sticks are hills.
II. Some sticks are rivers.
III. Some rocks are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
24. Statements : All tyres are cars. All wheels are cars. All cars are trains.
Conclusions :I. All tyres are trains.
II. Some trains are wheels.
III. Some trains are cars.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) All follow
Directions (Q. 25 to 32)—In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of symbols and digits lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following codes and conditions and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Letter :
B M K A T R E U N H F I WD P
Digit/Symbol Code :
7 % 5 ©6 9 8 2 @ 1 # $ 3 ♦ 4
Conditions :(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, codes for these two are to be interchanged.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Now based on the above, find out coded form of the letter groups given in each question.
25. RNWDEF
(A) 9 @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(B) # @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(C) # @ 3 ♦ 8 9
(D) # 3 ♦ @ 8 #
(E) None of these
26. MATRBW
(A) % © 6 9 7 3
(B) 3 © 6 9 7 3
(C) % © 6 9 7 %
(D) 3 © 6 9 7 %
(E) None of these
27. EDPKTA
(A) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 ©
(B) © ♦ 4 5 6 8
(C) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 8
(D) 8 ♦ 5 4 6 ©
(E) None of these
28. ABUHFI
(A) © 2 1 7 # $
(B) © 7 2 1 # ©
(C) $ 7 2 1 # $
(D) © 7 2 # 1 $
(E) None of these
29. WPTMBI
(A) $ 4 6 % 7 3
(B) 3 4 6 % 7 $
(C) 3 4 6 % 7 3
(D) $ 4 6 % 7 $
(E) None of these
30. FHITWU
(A) # 1 $ 6 3 #
(B) 2 1 $ 6 3 2
(C) # 1 # 6 3 2
(D) 2 1 $ 6 3 #
(E) None of these
31. HUDBRE
(A) 1 2 7 ♦ 9 8
(B) 1 2 ♦ 7 9 8
(C) 8 2 ♦ 7 9 1
(D) 8 ♦ 2 7 9 1
(E) None of these
32. IMPNWK
(A) 5 % 4 @ 3 $
(B) $ % 4 @ 3 5
(C) $ % 4 @ 3 $
(D) 5 % 4 @ 3 5
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 33 to 40)—Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : 51 pour 32 start now 23 46 house
Step I : 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 house
Step II : 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 house
Step III : 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 house
Step IV : 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 house
Step V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now house
Step VI : 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
33. Step II of an input is :18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31 How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
34. Input :
72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey How many steps will take to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
35. Input :
nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56
Which of the following will be step III ?
(A) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
(B) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56
(C) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56
(D) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56
(E) None of these
36. Step II of an input is :
16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Which of the following will be step V ?
(A) 16 victory 19 town store 36 53 lake
(B) 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake
(C) 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
(D) There will be no such step
(E) None of these
37. Step III of an input is
15 yes 29 ask for soap 42 37
Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(A) ask yes 29 15 for soap 42 37
(B) yes ask 15 29 for soap 42 37
(C) 29 15 yes ask for soap 42 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
38. Input :
milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Which of the following steps will
be the last but one ?
(A) VI
(B) V
(C) VII
(D) VIII
(E) None of these
39. Step III of an input is :
36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen How many more steps will required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
40. Input :
new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 41 to 45)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call center. Each of them has different day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them in each shift.
R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P’s day off is Tuesday and he does not work in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S’s day off is Sunday. V’s day off is immediate next day of that of R’s day off. T’s day off is not on Wednesday. W’s day off is not on the previous day of P’s day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day off is not on Thursday.
41. Which of the following is W’s day off ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Monday
(C) Saturday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
42. Which of the following is R’s day off ?
(A) Friday
(B) Thursday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II ?
(A) RP
(B) RV
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
44. Which of the following is Q’s day off ?
(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Monday
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I ?
(A) RV
(B) RP
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 46 to 50)—In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement give the answer—
(A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) If either I or II is implicit.
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit.
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
46. Statement : A nationalized bank issued an advertisement in the national dailies asking the eligible candidates for applying for 100 posts of chartered accountants.
Assumptions :
I. The eligible chartered accountants may respond to the advertisement.
II. There may be adequate number of eligible chartered accountants who may want to join a nationalized bank.
47. Statement : The municipal authority announced before the onset of monsoon that the roads within the city will be free of potholes during monsoon.
Assumptions :
I. The roads were repaired so well that potholes may not reappear.
II. People may not complain even if the potholes reappear.
48. Statement : “Our Europe Holiday Package costs less than some of the holiday Packages within the country”—An advertisement by an Indian travel company.
Assumptions :
I. People may prefer to travel to foreign destinations than to the places within the country at comparable cost.
II. People generally take their travel decisions after getting information from such advertisements.
49. Statement : The retail vegetable vendors increased the prices of vegetables by about 20 per cent due to non-availability of vegetables at lower prices at the wholesale market.
Assumptions :
I. The customers may totally stop buying vegetables at higher prices.
II. The customers may still buy vegetables from the retail vendors.
50. Statement : A large number of students and parents stood in the queue to collect forms for admission to various under-graduate courses in the college.
Assumptions :
I. The college authority may be able to admit all those who stood in the queue.
II. The college authority may have adequate number of forms for all those standing in the queue.
Directions (Q. 51 to 56)—Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
M 4 E T % J 9 I B @ U 8 © N # W F 1 V 7 ♦ 2 A H 3 Y 5 $ 6 K
51. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth fom the right end of the above arrangement ?
(A) A
(B) %
(C) I
(D) Y
(E) None of these
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
4 T % 9 B @ 8 N # F V 7 ?
(A) 2 H 3
(B) 2 H Y
(C) ♦ A H
(D) ♦ A 3
(E) None of these
53. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) J I T
(B) 3 5 A
(C) $ K Y
(D) A 3 ♦
(E) 8 © @
54. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
55. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
56. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Directions (Q. 57 to 63)—In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is / are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
57. Statements : M © T, T @ J, J # D
Conclusions :
I. D # T
II. D % T
III. D % M
(A) All are true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only either I or II is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true
58. Statements : H $ J, J © M, M @ T
Conclusions :
I. H % M
II. H $ T
III. T % J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these
59. Statements : R @ N, N % E, E # K
Conclusions :
I. R © K
II. K % N
III. E % R
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true
60. Statements : M © K, K % T, T $ R
Conclusions :
I. R © K
II. R © M
III. T © M
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these
61. Statements : D # W, W $ Z, Z % M
Conclusions :
I. Z @ D
II. M © D
III. D $ M
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only I and III are true
(D) All are true
(E) None of these
62. Statements : K % N, N $ B, B © D
Conclusions :
I. D % N
II. K % D
III. B © K
(A) None is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I is true
(E) Only II and III are true
63. Statements : T # A, A $ B, B @ D
Conclusions :
I. D # A
II. D # T
III. B @ T
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true
Directions (Q. 64 to 70)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-Finance in an organisation. The candidate must—
(i) Be a graduate in any discipline with at least 50 per cent marks.
(ii) Be a post-graduate in Management with specialization in Finance.
(iii) Be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 1.2.2008.
(iv) Have post qualification work experience of at least two years in the Accounts/Finance department of an organization.
(v) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria EXCEPT—
(a) At (ii) above, but has worked as Deputy Manager—Finance in an organization for at least three years, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.
(b) At (v) above, but has secured at least 70 per cent marks in post graduation, his/her case is to be referred
to President-Finance.
In each question below, detailed information of one candidate is provided. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark your answer accordingly. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in case of each candidate.
All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2008, mark answer—
(A) If the candidate is not to be selected.
(B) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
(C) If the case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.
(D) If the case is to be referred to President-Finance.
(E) If the candidate is to be selected.
64. Neeta Kothari was born on 10th September 1975. She has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing her MBA with Finance specialization. She has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.
65. Gopal Sharma has secured 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA in Finance with 75 per cent marks. He was born on 25th may 1978. He has secured 39 per cent marks in the selection process.
66. Sikha Dwivedi was born on 8th March 1975. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and post graduation. She has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing her post graduation. She has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.
67. Samir Malhotra has secured 55 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA. He was born on 24th February 1980. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.
68. Somnath Banerjee was born on July 8, 1972. He has secured 65 per cent marks in both graduation and MBA-Finance. He has also secured 70 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing his MBA.
69. Ashok Chandra has secured 70 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working for the past three years in the Finance Dept. of an organization after completing his MBA. He has secured 35 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th December 1979.
70. Avinash Chopra has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past four years after completing graduation with 65 per cent marks. He has also done a diploma in Finance Management. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 3rd April, 1978.
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C)
7. (A) 1st, 4th and 7th digits of the number 4 6 7 1 3 5 8 and 4, 1 and 8 respectively. The number formed with these digits is 841 which is the perfect square of two digit odd number 29. The digit at 10th place it is 2.
8. (D) 9. (E) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (E) All the rest are the parts of a tree.
14. (C)
15. (C) All the rest birds can see.
16. (C)
17. (E) 2nd, 5th, 6th and 10th letters of the word STREAMLINE are T, A, M and E respectively. The meaningful words formed with these letters are : TEAM, TAME, MEAT and MATE.
18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (E)
25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (E) 29. (A) 30. (D) 31. (C) 32. (C)
33. (C) Step II : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31
Step III : 18 task 31 bear cold dish 81 63
Step IV : 18 task 31 dish bear cold 81 63
Step V : 18 task 31 dish 63 bear cold 81
Step VI : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold bear 81
Step VII : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold 81 bear
Hence, 5 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
34. (D) Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
Step I : 24 72 59 37 go for picnic journey
Step II : 24 picnic 72 59 37 go for journey
Step III : 24 picnic 37 72 59 go for journey
Step IV : 24 picnic 37 journey 72 59 go for
Step V : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 72 go for
Step VI : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 go 72 for
Hence, VI steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
35. (A) Input # nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56.
Step I : 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56.
Step II : 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56.
Step III : 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
36. (D) Step II : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Step III : 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
Step IV : 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake There is no V step.
37. (D)
38. (B) Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Step I : 18 milk pot 24 over goal 36 53
Step II : 18 pot milk 24 over goal 36 53
Step III : 18 pot 24 milk over goal 36 53
Step IV : 18 pot 24 over milk goal 36 53
Step V : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk goal 53
Step VI : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk 53 goal
The last step is VI.
Hence, the prelast step is V.
39. (A) Step III : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen
Step IV : 36 win 44 ultra 95 86 box queen
Step V : 36 win 44 ultra 86 95 box queen
Step VI : 36 win 44 ultra 86 queen 95 box.
Hence, 3 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
40. (A) Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join.
Step I : 11 new 22 model 27 pump 38 join.
Step II : 11 pump new 22 model 27 38 join.
Step III : 11 pump 22 new model 27 38 join.
Step IV : 11 pump 22 new 27 model 38 join.
Hence, four steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (E) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (A) 17th from the right end is N and 9th to the right from N is A.
52. (A) 53. (E) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (E) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (A) 61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (D)
64. (B) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Neeta Kothari in graduate examination.
65. (D) Gopal Sharma fulfils all the conditions excepts (v) and accordingly to (b) he obtained marks in M.B.A. more than 70%. So his case will be referred to President-Finance.
66. (A) Sikha Dwivedi neither fulfils the condition (ii) nor (a). Hence she is not to be selected.
67. (E) Samir Malhotra fulfils all the conditions. So he is to be selected.
68. (A) The age of Somnath Banerjee is more than 35 years. So he is not to be selected.
69. (A) Ashok Chandra neither fulfils the condition (v) nor (b). Hence, he is not to be selected.
70. (C) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Avinash Chopra, but according to condition (a), all are fulfil except condition (ii). The case is to be referred to General Manager Finance.
Dena Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 2-9-2008)
Agriculture : Solved Paper
1. Which of the following crops is tolerant of soil on water salinity ?
(A) Date-palm
(B) Cabbage
(C) Orange
(D) Grapes
(E) Peas
2. How many minimum tractor hours per year of 40 H.P. power should be used approximately for purely agricultural use and not for custom service unit to become viable unit ?
(A) 500 hrs.
(B) 600 hrs.
(C) 1000 hrs.
(D) 1500 hrs.
(E) 2000 hrs.
3. Drip-irrigation has been most successful for……
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Berseem
(D) Lucerne
(E) Grape
4. The percentage of Nitrogen (N) in DAP is……
(A) 46
(B) 26
(C) 18
(D) 80
(E) 30
5. Contract farming consists of……
(A) hiring land by farmers on contract basis for cultivation
(B) supply of agreed quantity of produce to agreed price to the company
(C) company taking on lease basis farmers’ land for cultivation
(D) processing cash crops, vegetables etc. by company and to give back to farmers
(E) providing inputs by company to farmers for improving quality of produce
6. Water held in the soil is not available to the plant, if it is held at tension……
(A) 1/3 atmosphere
(B) below 1/3 atmosphere
(C) 1-3 atmosphere
(D) 3-15 atmosphere
(E) above 15 atmosphere
7. While starting cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants, first it should be ensured……
(A) cultivation expenses
(B) medicinal value of plants
(C) availability of processing unit
(D) location of the farm
(E) availability of assured profitable market
8. West Coast Tall (WCT) is a variety of……
(A) Paddy
(B) Cashew
(C) Coconut
(D) Arecanut
(E) Coco
9. The phenomenon of Heterosis has been most commercially exploited first in……
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Sugarcane
(E) Tobacco
10. Processed meat and poultry products have good market. However, their export is mainly hampered due to……
(A) processing not as per demand
(B) breeds are not suitable for export
(C) no proper transport conditions
(D) unhygienic conditions of slaughter houses and animal diseases
(E) domestic market is available easily
11. Arabica is a type of……
(A) flower
(B) horse
(C) coffee
(D) vegetable
(E) fodder
12. Vermicompost is prepared with the help of following……
(A) Bacteria
(B) Earthworms
(C) Ants
(D) Virus
(E) Fungus
13. The average carbon / nitrogen ratio of soils is generally……
(A) 25 : 1
(B) 5 : 1
(C) 30 : 1
(D) 14 : 1
(E) None of these
14. In case of Drip irrigation which of the following advantage is observed ?
(A) It saves water
(B) Root system of plant remains in upper layer of soil
(C) Plastic tubes are not harmed by rats
(D) Life of drip irrigation is very long
(E) Where there is lot of rainfall, there are no limitation to such system
15. If PE denotes monthly average value of potential evapo–transpiration and R stands for monthly average rainfall, the period having PE/4 greater than or equal to R, is designated as……
(A) Moist
(B) Humid
(C) Moderately Dry
(D) Severe Drought
(E) Dry
16. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme in its first two years of operation envisaged to cover……
(A) all crops-grown by small and marginal farmers only
(B) all crops-cultivated with the help of crop loans only irrespective of the size of holding of the borrowers
(C) all food crops-cultivated by all types of farmers
(D) only horticultural crops
(E) only seven commercial crops-grown under contract farming system
17. Which one of the following breeds of sheep produces superior carpet wool in India ?
(A) Nellore
(B) Nilgiri
(C) Sonadi
(D) Dorset
(E) Jaisalmeri
18. Which one of the following is a European Species of honeybee successfully introduced in India ?
(A) Apis mellifera
(B) Apis florea
(C) Apis dorsata
(D) Apis cerana
(E) Apis melipona
19. Which one of the following Indian States/Union Territories accounts for the largest quantity of shrimp production per annum, among all the states of India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Orissa
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
20. The hybrid of which one of the following crops was evolved by India using modern DNA techniques and released in February 2005 ?
(A) Ricinus communis
(B) Solgum vulgare
(C) Pennisetum typhoides
(D) Arachis hypogaea
(E) India has not released any such hybrid so far
21. As per the WTO Uruguay Round Agreement the domestic support creating trade distorting effect on agricultural commodities are included in……
(A) Green Box
(B) Amber Box
(C) Pink Box
(D) Blue Box
(E) None of these
22. Which one of the following is the name of the nematode, which lives as internal parasite of buds and foliage of Chrysanthemum and strawberry and causes distortions and crinkling of foliage, and leaf spots ?
(A) Aphelenchoides besseyi
(B) Pratilenchus thornei
(C) Meloidogyne incognita
(D) Aphelenchoides ritzemabosi
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following materials do not fit into the list of the raw materials used for feeding the earthworms in the scientific management of Vermiculture ?
(A) Grass Clippings
(B) Curd
(C) Carrot tops
(D) Lettuce leaves
(E) All are useful
24. A small dairy farm daily produces 100 kilograms of average quality buffalo milk and sells it to an organised dairy at the rate of Rs. 100 per kilogram of total solids contained in the milk. How much would be the daily gross income of the farm from the sale of milk ?
(A) Between Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 2,200
(B) Between Rs. 1,250 and Rs. 1,400
(C) Between Rs. 700 and Rs. 825
(D) Between Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,100
(E) Between Rs. 1,650 and Rs. 1,850
25. What would be the most probable date of giving the delivery of one day old chicks by a hatchery farmer, who has put the fertile eggs of hen on his well functioning incubator on First of January ?
(A) February 20
(B) February 5
(C) January 29
(D) January 22
(E) January 15
26. Which one of the following crops is sensitive to salt as well as boron in soil and water ?
(A) Grape
(B) Sugar beet
(C) Carrot
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
27. Which one of the following ornamental plants is a native of India and has been introduced into several countries from India ?
(A) Gladiolus
(B) Orchids
(C) Bougainvillea
(D) Marigold
(E) None of these
28. How much area could be covered for giving one irrigation of 3" depth by a pumpset of one cusec output in the operation of 600 hours, if the water conveyance efficiency is 80 per cent ?
(A) 180 acres
(B) 320 acres
(C) 240 acres
(D) 160 acres
(E) None of these
29. If in a water tank, the water pressure is 5 kg/cm2, then, pressure head would be :
(A) 50 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 5 m
(E) None of these
30. Approximately how many eggs does a female silkworm lay in 24 hours after the proper copulation with the male moth in India ?
(A) 200
(B) 1200
(C) 100
(D) 400
(E) None of these
31. The causal organism of Ranikhet disease of fowls is……
(A) Pasteurella multocida
(B) Brucella melitensis
(C) Clorstridium chauvoei
(D) Sporoltrix schenkii
(E) None of these
32. Which one of the following is the name of self-fruitful variety of Prunus domestica grown in India ?
(A) Virginia Gold
(B) Santa Rosa
(C) Grand Duke
(D) Rome Beauty
(E) None of these
33. Other things being suitable, what level of temperature is considered ideal for optimum growth of banana crop ?
(A) 36°C
(B) 18°C
(C) 30°C
(D) 12°C
(E) 27°C
34. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins in the ration of Poultry birds increases the Coagulation time of blood and creates the danger of haemorrhage ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B1
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin D
(E) Vitamin B6
35. Which one of the following commodities does fall within the scope of the activities of National Horticulture Mission in India ?
(A) Tomato
(B) Arecanut
(C) Cashewnut
(D) Coconut
(E) All above horticultural crops
36. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil conservation of ravine lands and the land affected by shifting cultivation ?
(A) Pennisetum polystachyon
(B) Cenchurus setigerus
(C) Eulalioposis binata
(D) Lasiurus sindicus
(E) Penicum antidotale
37. Which one of the following is the name of a dual purpose Indian cattle breed, which has been exported widely to Latin American countries in the past ?
(A) Gir
(B) Kankrej
(C) Tharparkar
(D) Nagauri
(E) None of these
38. Iodine deficiency in the Sow’s ratio during pregnancy would be reflected through the symptom of……
(A) Lactation failure
(B) Poor reproduction
(C) Birth of dead or weak piglets
(D) Birth of hairless piglets
(E) Birth of blind piglets
39. Which one of the following states has the largest area under Forest cover among all the states given in the list ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
(E) Rajasthan
40. In the literature on the development of GMO crops, which one of the following crops is among those crops that have been designated as Orphan Crops ?
(A) Soybean
(B) Corn
(C) Cowpea
(D) Canola
(E) None of these
41. Which one of the following would be the probable date of kidding for a she-goat that has been successfully serviced on First of March ? (All dates belong to the same year)
(A) June 12
(B) July 29
(C) August 28
(D) September 15
(E) May 30
42. In India, which one of the following should be considered the right combination of the age in days and live body weight in kg for a lamb for its weaning ?
(A) 20 days to 30 days and 6 kg to 7 kg
(B) 45 days to 60 days and 8 kg to 10 kg
(C) 105 days to 120 days and 18 kg to 21 kg
(D) 75 days to 90 days and 12 kg to 15 kg
(E) 55 days to 70 days and 9 kg to 11 kg
43. What is the causal organism of Powdery mildew of Ricinus communis ?
(A) Sphacelotheca reiliana
(B) Claviceps microcephala
(C) Leveillula taurica
(D) Puccinia carthami
(E) Fusarium annuum
44. Which one of the following countries has been the largest importer of floriculture products; especially rose and lotus flowers in terms of value from India over last five years among all the countries given in the list ?
(A) Japan
(B) Italy
(C) Netherlands
(D) UAE
(E) USA
45. As a good management practice recommended for the growing cattle in India, what should be the daily requirement of TDN for a cattle of 200 kg live body weight ?
(A) 3•2 kg
(B) 1•8 kg
(C) 2•4 kg
(D) 4•0 kg
(E) 0•9 kg
46. Milk fever in cattle is caused due to the deficiency of :
(A) Ca
(B) Fe
(C) Vit. ‘D’
(D) N
(E) None of these
47. The cake of which one of the following materials prepared with the comparable processing technology, contains the largest percentage of ‘N’ plant nutrient among all the materials given in the list ?
(A) Coconut
(B) Neem
(C) Palm nut
(D) Mahua
(E) Karanj
48. In respect of total foodgrains production during 2007-08 in India, which is correct in production (million tonnes) ?
(A) 230•67
(B) 207•00
(C) 217•85
(D) 200•00
(E) None of these
49. Which one of the following feeding material is usually relished by the goats in India ?
(A) Hay prepared from forest grasses
(B) Straw of Sorghum vulgare
(C) Silage of Sorghum vulgare
(D) Straw of Phaseolus aureus
(E) None of these
50. During last five years, which of the following Institutions have extended the largest amount of fresh credit for agriculture in India among all the institutions given in the list ?
(A) NABARD (Direct credit)
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Cooperative Banks
(D) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
(E) Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (E) 7. (E) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (E)
21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (E) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (E)
Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 5-10-2008)
General Socio-Economic & Banking Awareness : Solved Paper
1. RBI’s open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate—
(A) Liquidity in the economy
(B) Prices of essential commodities
(C) Inflation
(D) Borrowing power of the banks
(E) All the above
2. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known as—
(A) Participation
(B) Consortium
(C) Syndication
(D) Multiple banking
(E) None of these
3. Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these
4. The bank rate means—
(A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
(B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers
(C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
(D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
(E) None of these
5. What is an Indian Depository Receipt ?
(A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
(B) A depository account with any of Depositories in India
(C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
(D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
(E) None of these
6. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold, stocks etc.) is known as—
(A) Derivative
(B) Securitisation Receipts
(C) Hedge Fund
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
7. Fiscal deficit is—
(A) total income less Govt. borrowing
(B) total payments less total receipts
(C) total payments less capital receipts
(D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
(E) None of these
8. In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to—
(A) purchase of securities to cover the sale
(B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase
(C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price
(D) variation in different markets
(E) Any of the above
9. Reverse repo means—
(A) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. securities
(C) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhancing economic growth rate
(D) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market
(E) Any of the above
10. The stance of RBI monetary policy is—
(A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
(B) improving credit quality of the Banks
(C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism
(D) supporting investment demand in the economy
(E) Any of the above
11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage—
(A) Currency risk
(B) interest rate risk
(C) currency and interest rate risk
(D) cash flows in different currencies
(E) All of the above
12. ‘Sub-prime’ refers to—
(A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR
(B) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates
(C) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Banker’s Almanac
(D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards
(E) All of the above
13. Euro Bond is an instrument—
(A) issued in the European market
(B) issued in Euro Currency
(C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
14. Money Laundering normally involves—
(A) placement of funds
(B) layering of funds
(C) integration of funds
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)
15. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to—
(A) strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy
(B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation
(C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)
16. Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI
17. In the term BRIC, R stands for—
(A) Romania
(B) Rajithan
(C) Russia
(D) Regulation
(E) None of these
18. FDI refers to—
(A) Fixed Deposit Interest
(B) Fixed Deposit Investment
(C) Foreign Direct Investment
(D) Future Derivative Investment
(E) None of these
19. What is Call Money ?
(A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
(C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
(D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days
(E) None of these
20. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ?
(A) Reliance
(B) TCS
(C) HCL
(D) Infosys
(E) None of these
21. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) SIDBI
(D) SEBI
(E) None of these
22. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda ?
(A) Juhi Chawla
(B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Kapil Dev
(E) None of these
23. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is—
(A) International Bank of India
(B) India’s International Bank
(C) India’s Multinational Bank
(D) World’s local Bank
(E) None of these
24. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as—
(A) Sun of Bank of Baroda
(B) Baroda Sun
(C) Bank of Baroda’s Rays
(D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda
(E) None of these
25. Which of the following statements(s) is/are True about the exports of China which is a close competitor of India ?
(i) China’s economic success is basically on the fact that it exports cheaper goods to rich nations like the USA, etc.
(ii) In the year 2007 China’s exports became almost 40% of its GDP.
(iii) When compared to India China’s share in the World Exports is more than 30% whereas India’s share is mere 6% of the global exports.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
26. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ?
(A) Know Your Customer Norms
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) None of these
27. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers. What is the full form of ‘M’ in ‘M-Banking’ ?
(A) Money
(B) Marginal
(C) Message
(D) Mutual Fund
(E) Mobile Phone
28. Which of the following is/are true about the ‘Sub-Prime Crisis’ ? (The term was very much in news recently.)
(i) It is a mortgage crisis referring to credit default by the borrowers.
(ii) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers.
(iii) This crisis originated because of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the Financial System in India ?
(A) Industrial Finance
(B) Agricultural Finance
(C) Government Finance
(D) Development Finance
(E) Personal Finance
30. Which of the following is not the part of the scheduled banking structure in India ?
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Public Sector Banks
(C) Private Sector Banks
(D) Regional Rural Banks
(E) State Co-operative Banks
31. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services
(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these
32. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ?
(i) To attract foreign investment directly.
(ii) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals.
(iii) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
33. Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global emission of carbon every year ?
(A) US, China, India, South Africa
(B) India, China, Russia, Britain
(C) South Africa, Nepal, Myanmar
(D) US, Russia, China & India
(E) None of these
34. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Nuclear Bank’ floated by International Atomic Energy Agency ?
(i) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly.
(ii) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium.
(iii) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the nations.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii) only
(D) Only (iii)
(E) Both (i) and (ii) only
35. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is ‘Future Trading’ ?
(i) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges wherein it is decided to purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year.
(ii) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the future at a predetermined price.
(iii) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
36. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ?
(A) Cost of Living Index (COLI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) Gross Domestic Product
(D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(E) None of these
37. As per the reports published in the newspapers a section of society staged a demonstration at the venue of the G-8 Summit recently. What was/were the issues towards which these demonstrators were trying to draw the attention of G-8 leaders ?
(i) Food shortage which has taken 50 million people in its grip.
(ii) Inflation which has gone up substantially across the Globe.
(iii) USA’s consistent presence in Iraq.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (ii) only
(E) None of these
38. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA ?
(A) George Bush
(B) Barack Obama
(C) John McCain
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) None of these
39. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the—
(A) President of Congo
(B) Prime Minister of Uganda
(C) President of Venezuela
(D) Prime Minister of Brazil
(E) None of these
40. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the Loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly—
(A) Rs. 60,000 crore
(B) Rs. 65,000 crore
(C) Rs. 72,000 crore
(D) Rs. 76,000 crore
(E) Rs. 80,000 crore
41. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation that next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next Census due ?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
(E) 2015
42. The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ?
(A) Tobacco
(B) Alcoholic drinks
(C) Junk Food
(D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims ?
(A) Japan
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these
44. India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of various rivers. Which of the following rivers is not covered under these agreements ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Gandak
(C) Ganga
(D) Mahakali
(E) All these rivers are covered
45. Which of the following names is not closely associated with space programme of India or any other country ?
(A) CARTOSAT
(B) NLS - 5
(C) RUBIN - 8
(D) GSLV
(E) SCOPE
46. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Football
(E) Golf
47. Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic Torch ?
(A) Journey of Harmony
(B) Green World Clean World
(C) Journey of Peace
(D) Journey for Hunger-free World
(E) None of these
48. Which of the following schemes is not a social development Scheme ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Mid Day Meal
(C) Bharat Nirman Yojana
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(E) All are social schemes
49. Which of the following is not a member of the ASEAN ?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Vietnam
(D) Britain
(E) Singapore
50. Which of the following Awards are given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(A) Kalinga Prize
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C)
Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Exam. 2007
General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. As a part of its commitment to the World Trade Organization (WTO) India has taken various steps to reform its financial sector. Which of the following is one major step in this direction ?
(A) Huge budgetary provision for Bharat Nirman Yojana
(B) More and more foreign banks are allowed to open their branches in India
(C) Rebate in rate of personal income tax for Senior Citizen
(D) Introduction of Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT)
(E) None of these
2. As per the new guidelines issued by the National Housing Bank persons marginally above the poverty line can avail a one-time loan for housing and income generating activities. What is the limit of the total loan one can get for the same ?
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 60,000
(C) Rs. 70,000
(D) Rs. 75,000
(E) Rs. 1,00,000
3. As per the Railway Budget 2007-08 what has been the Cash Profit of the Indian Railways for the year 2006-07 ?
(A) Around Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Around Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Around Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Around Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) Around Rs. 30,000 crore
4. The G-8 Summit in June 2007 was organized in……
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) Britain
(E) Germany
5. Which of the following countries decided to give up its demand for duty cut on rubber so that India can also show some flexibility in the talks on ‘Free Trade Agreement’ with it ?
(A) Thailand
(B) China
(C) Myanmar
(D) Philippines
(E) None of these
6. As per the provision of the Micro Finance Bill cleared by the Government of India in February 2007, which of the following organizations/agencies is authorized to regulate the Micro Finance Sector in India ?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) SIDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) General Insurance Corporation of India
(E) None of these
7. The RBI has asked the banks not to grant loans to individuals for the purchase of which of the following ?
(A) Gold
(B) Agricultural land
(C) Two Wheelers in rural areas
(D) Kisan Vikas Patra
(E) All these
8. As per the reports in the financial news papers the RBI, w.e.f. February 2007, has decided to pay some interest on the ‘Cash reserve deposits’ kept with it by various banks. What will be the rate of interest on such deposits ?
(A) 0•5%
(B) 0•75%
(C) 1%
(D) 1•25%
(E) None of these
9. BEML is a major Mini Ratna Company in India engaged in production of heavy machines and defence equipments. What is the full name of the Company ?
(A) Bihar Electronics and Melamines Ltd.
(B) Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.
(C) British Electronics and Metalics Ltd.
(D) Brick Kiln Engg. and Metals Ltd.
(E) None of these
10. “Auto majors go aggressive on marketing, raise and spend” was a caption in a leading
newspaper some time back. Who amongst the following is not an Auto company ?
(A) Hyundai
(B) General Motors
(C) Maruti
(D) Tata
(E) Tripex
11. Which of the following is the name of India’s Supersonic Cruise Missile which was test fired successfully in recent past ?
(A) Kiran
(B) SRE-1
(C) Rajat-36
(D) Brahmos
(E) None of these
12. Which of the following is one famous book written by Late Kamleshwar, a well known personality in the field of literature and T.V. ?
(A) Kitne Pakistan
(B) Train to Pakistan
(C) Pakistan Cut to Size
(D) Post Office
(E) None of these
13. ‘Global Warming’ is a major cause of concern these days all over the world. Which of the following efforts on the part of the people/governments can help all of us in reducing the effect of the same [(Pick up the correct statement(s)] ?
1. Increasing energy efficiency standards.
2. Eliminating subsidies that encourage the use of coal and oil as subsidy makes them cheaper.
3. Eliminating thick forests as they absorb the sunlight and thus slow down the process of recirculation of fresh gases in the atmosphere.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
14. With the take over of Corus Steel Company the Tata Corus has obtained which of the following positions in the production of steel in the world ?
(A) 1st
(B) 2nd
(C) 3rd
(D) 4th
(E) 5th
15. Which of the following is the correct definition of ‘VISTA’ which was launched by the Microsoft a few months back ?
(A) It is a new computer programme used for the analysis of data received from Space Centre/ Satellites
(B) It is a new operating system useful for personal computers
(C) It is the Brand Name of the new Computers launched specially for use in schools and adult education centres in India
(D) It is a new software developed by Microsoft to be used for medical purposes
(E) None of these
16. The President of Russia Vladimir Putin was in India a few months back. During the visit India signed an agreement for sharing the data from one of Russias Satellite systems. What is the name of that Satellite ?
(A) GLONASS
(B) PSLV-C7
(C) MATSAT
(D) ATLANTIS
(E) None of these
17. The Cauvery Tribunal gave its Final Award a few months back. Who amongst the following was not the member of the Tribunal ?
(A) Mr. N. S. Rao
(B) Mr. Suresh Prabhu
(C) Mr. N. P. Singh
(D) Mr. Sudhir Narain
(E) All these
18. India in the beginning of the year 2007 renewed its 60 years old Friendship Treaty with Bhutan. Which of the following is one important clause of this treaty ?
(A) India will supply 50,000 tonnes of sugar to Bhutan every year as Bhutan is not a sugar producing country
(B) Both the countries will prevent the use of their territories for activities harmful to each other.
(C) Bhutan will help India in getting a permanent seat in U.N. Security Council as India needs only one more vote to support its claim for the same
(D) India will help Bhutan in construction of three major Power Projects there
(E) India will allow Bhutan to make a canal to utilize Ganga water for irrigation purposes in Bhutan
19. Which of the following countries has never won any World Cup Cricket Tournament in the past (Matches were played between 1975-2007) ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Australia
(C) India
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) South Africa
20. Which of the following countries was adjudged as the fourth largest country in Asia to receive maximum Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in 2006 ?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Nepal
(D) South Korea
(E) None of these
21. Mr. Fali Homi Major has taken over as the new—
(A) Chief of Air Staff
(B) Chief of Indian Army
(C) Chief of Research & Analysis Wing (RAW)
(D) Governor of Nagaland
(E) None of these
22. Mr. Paul Wolfowitz who decided to leave his post was working as the—
(A) Secretary General of UNO
(B) Head of the World Trade Organization
(C) Head of the World Bank
(D) Governor of Nagaland
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following banks is appointed as the Bank who will refund Income Tax to Tax Payers ?
(A) AXIS Bank
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) State Bank of India
(E) None of these
24. Which of the following statement is not correct in relation to the Union Budget 2007-08 ?
(A) Tax on dividend distributed by companies hiked from 12•5% to 15%
(B) Banking cash transaction Tax exemption limit increased from Rs. 25,000 to 50,000
(C) Rs. 2500 crore allocated for National Scholarship Scheme for students of Class IX to XII
(D) Education Cess on all taxes increased from 2% to 3%
(E) Budget created special funds to boost the production of Rubber, Coffee and Spices
25. Ankara the capital of Turkey was in news as……
(A) a suicide bombing took place there, killing several people
(B) the World Water Summit took place there
(C) the next European Summit will take place there in which Turkey will formally be inducted as the member of the E.U.
(D) the Olympic games–2014 will be organized there
(E) None of these
26. The United Nations Nuclear Inspectors recently visited Iran to find out the progress made by Iran in order to follow the deadline to stop enrichment of uranium by the same.
Which of the following is the report of the Group of Inspectors ?
(A) Iran has completely stopped enrichment of uranium
(B) Iran has failed to observed the deadline imposed by the UNO
(C) Iran has stopped enrichment of Uranium but is not ready to destroy the nuclear weapons produced earlier
(D) Iran did not allow Inspectors to visit its facilities and also refused to put any ban on the enrichment programme
(E) None of these
27. Ms. Asha Rose Migiro who has taken over as the Deputy Secretary General of the UNO, is a citizen of which of the following countries ?
(A) South Africa
(B) Tanzania
(C) India
(D) Trinidad
(E) None of these
28. The 12th ASEAN Summit was organized in 2007 in Cebu. Cebu is in which of the following countries ?
(A) Philippines
(B) China
(C) Nepal
(D) North Korea
(E) Thailand
29. The Prime Minister of India launched Auto Mission Plan (AMP) in the beginning of the year 2007. The plan is expected to transform India into a global automobile player in the next—
(A) ten years
(B) twelve years
(C) fifteen years
(D) twenty years
(E) five years
30. Haryana Governor Akhlaq-ur-Rehman Kidwai recently took the oath as the acting Governor of which of the following States ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Punjab
(C) Delhi
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these
31. Which of the following countries won the men’s Indoor Hockey World Championship 2007 held in Vienna /
(A) Poland
(B) Spain
(C) Austria
(D) Germany
(E) England
32. ‘Samjhouta Express’ which became the target of a bomb blast a few months back runs between which of the following two stations ?
(A) New Delhi–Lahore
(B) New Delhi–Wagah
(C) Amritsar–Wagah
(D) Amritsar–Lahore
(E) New Delhi–Islamabad
33. Mr. Okram Ibobi Singh is the Chief Minister of—
(A) Haryana
(B) Punjab
(C) Manipur
(D) Meghalaya
(E) None of these
34. Who amongst the following was adjudged as the Femina Miss India Universe 2007 ?
(A) Puja Gupta
(B) Pooja Chitgopekar
(C) Sweta Lamba
(D) Sarah Jane Dias
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following films won the 52nd National Filmfare Awards for Best Music ?
(A) Omkara
(B) Fana
(C) Lage Raho Munnabhai
(D) Rang De Basanti
(E) Dhoom-2
36. Which of the following is the full form of the ‘WMF’ ?
(A) Web Mutual Fund
(B) World Mutual Fund
(C) World Monuments Fund
(D) World Music Fund
(E) None of these
37. The 43rd Conference of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) on security policies was organized in—
(A) Prague
(B) Moscow
(C) Vienna
(D) Paris
(E) Munich
38. Who amongst the following is the author of the book—“A view from the Outside : Why Good Economics Works for Every- one ?”
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Dr. Amartya Sen
(C) Mr. L. N. Mittal
(D) Mr. Ashok Lahiri
(E) Mr. P. Chidambaram
39. Who amongst the following won the WTA Title of Ericson International WTA Tennis Event 2007 (Women’s) ?
(A) Mara Santangelo
(B) Chia Jung Chuan
(C) Alla Kudryavtseva
(D) Yung-Jan Chan
(E) Yaroslava Shvedova
40. Which of the following State was at the top of the list of Medals won by it in 33rd National Games 2007 ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Manipur
(E) Assam
41. After much persuasion and also after facing an economic sanction on it which of the following countries recently decided to end its Nuclear Programme ?
(A) China
(B) Iran
(C) Libya
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
42. The USA recently signed the Acquisition and Cross Serving Agreement (ACSA) providing for mutual support during humanitarian missions, peace keeping operations etc. with a country of Indian sub-continent. The name of the country is—
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) India
(E) Bangladesh
43. Immediately prior to becoming the President of India Mrs. Pratibha Patil was the—
(A) Union Minister for Social Welfare
(B) Chairperson National Commission for Women
(C) Governor of Punjab
(D) Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh
(E) None of these
44. As per the targets set for 11th plan period the dropout rate of children from elementary school should be brought to which of the following levels by 2011-12 ?
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
(E) 30%
45. Digambar Kamat is the 19th Chief Minister of—
(A) Goa
(B) Karnataka
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) None of these
46. Which of the following statements about Afro-Asia Cup 2007 is true ?
1. Africa XI won the tourna-ment
2. Asia XI won the tournament
3. All the three matches played under the tournament were declared draw, Hence no team won the trophy
4. Africa won the first match and declared winner
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 4
(E) None of these
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Gandhi–A Spiritual Journey’ ?
(A) Mark Tully
(B) Ramchandra Gandhi
(C) K. N. Raj
(D) M. S. Swaminathan
(E) M. V. Kamath
48. Samresh Jung became the first Indian to bag on Olympic quota in which of the following events ?
(A) Swimming
(B) Pistol shooting
(C) 100 mtrs. Race
(D) High jump
(E) Long jump
49. Who amongst the following is allowed recently to have 49 per cent stake in HPCL Refinery ?
(A) Tata
(B) Mukesh Ambani
(C) Kumarmangalam Birla
(D) L. N. Mittal
(E) None of these
50. Which of the following is observed as the ‘World Refugees Day’ by the UNO ?
(A) June 26th
(B) July 26th
(C) July 20th
(D) June 20th
(E) August 20th
Answers
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (E) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (E)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (E) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (E) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (E) 24. (C) 25. (E) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (E) 39. (E) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (E) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (D)
Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
Reasoning : Solved Paper
(Held on 7-9-2008)
Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?
Answers :
61. (B) In each subsequent figure one time the three designs remain same and next time after shifting one side anticlockwise direction then it remain same position. Inside shaded part of the designs form after rotating 90° anticlockwise in the two designs and forms after rotating 90° clockwise in a simple square design with this also.
62. (D) In each subsequent figure the outside bigger design ‘<’ forms after rotating 45° and 90° anticlockwise respectively and the inside smaller design ‘^’ forms after rotating 90° and 180° anticlockwise respectively. 63. (E) 64. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on upper side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 2, 3, 1 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and one curved line is missing from back side each time. The curved lines on lower side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 3, 4, 2 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and is also missing 1 and 2 respectively from back side. 65. (C) In each subsequent figure the designs shift half side anticlockwise first and then one side anticlockwise respectively and a new design forms one by one from back side each time then forward side respectively. 66. (E) In each subsequent figure one design forms on upper left side corner first and then this design shifts half side, one side and, one and half side clockwise respectively. These designs rotate 90° clockwise each time with this change also. 67. (B) 68. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on the upper and lower side horizontal lines reverse in sequence one and three in clockwise direction from upper left respectively. 69. (B) In each subsequent figure the outside half circle forms inside after reversing and shifting one side anticlockwise and then it forms outside after reversing on the same side. So these sequences continue respectively. The second design square forms once on next side anticlockwise after reversing from outside to inside. 70. (E) 71. (A) 72. (C) In each subsequent figure increase in the number of triangles from upper left corner beome on the basis of increasing of lines three, four, five, six and seven lines respectively. 73. (B) 74. (E) In each subsequent figure the circles form on the place of two-two stars from upper left corner. These small circles form on the place of existing stars in the next two lines after forming upto lower left as 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively and then two-two stars form on the place of circles from back side. 75. (D) In each subsequent figure the ‘square’ forms one side clockwise first and then half side anticlockwise respectively. Similarly, the ‘circle’ shifts half side, one side, one and half side, two side and two and half side anticlockwise respectively in each subsequent figure also.
Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
Reasoning : Solved Paper
(Held on 7-9-2008)
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the onethat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 δ
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
35. 931%©Î´
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and δ are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R δ K
Conclusions : I. K δ J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T δ H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F δ T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E δ B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted from the first number.
50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the previous year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food
habits.
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K $ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 7-9-2008)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Over the past few decades, many Asian nations transformed from poverty into global competitors. From 2003 to 2007, Asian economies expanded at an average annual rate of 8•1%, triple that of advanced economies. Over the same period, inflation in Asia averaged only about 3•5%. But Asia could be facing turbulent economic times. In May, the average inflation rate throughout the region reached nearly 7%, led by spikes in oil and food prices. In India, inflation jumped to an 11•6% annual rate in June, according to the latest government figures, the highest in 13 years.
Policymakers and central bankers are forced to raise interest rates and limit credit to get inflation under control. But these same measures suppress the investment and consumption that generates growth. The combination of slowing growth and soaring inflation makes economic policy-making tricky. Inflation stirs up the middle classes because it can quickly erase years of hardwon personal gains. Inflation is cruel to the poor, because families have to spend a larger share of their meagre incomes on necessities. In the Philippines, farmers, unable to afford fuel for tractors, use water buffaloes to plough their fields.
But to avoid unrest, leaders cannot blindly adopt rigid anti-inflation measures. Voters won’t hesitate to remove from office any politician who doesn’t deliver the goods. So they cannot overreact to the inflation threat and scale down economic growth in the process. Developing nations need to grow quickly to create jobs and increase incomes for their large populations. With prices soaring, doing nothing is not an option. Most central banks in Asia have started raising interest rates. The Reserve Bank of India increased its benchmark rate twice last month to a six year high of 8•5%.
The challenge is especially difficult because currently, inflation is not of domestic origin. Prices are being driven higher by a global surge in oil and food prices, which individual governments can do little to control. Of course, inflation is not just a problem in Asia. World Bank President Robert Zoellick called rising food and oil prices a man-made ‘catastrophe’ that could quickly reverse the gains made in overcoming poverty over the past seven years. For now, though, there is more talk than action on the international front, so Asian governments are on their own.
Even though inflation throughout the region is likely to continue to rise in coming months, no one is expecting an economic calamity. According to the Asian Development Bank Asian countries have large hard currency reserves and relatively healthy banks, and so are far better prepared to absorb external shocks than they were during the region’s last recession ten years ago. Asian policymakers have learned their lessons and are more alert.
1. Which of the following can be said about Asian economies during the period from 2003- 2007 ?
1. Though inflation was rising at the time politicians did not pay much attention.
2. Many of the poor countries were able to compete internationally.
3. The growth rate of Asian countries was facilitated by growth in advanced countries.
(A) All 1, 2, and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
2. Which of the following is not an anti-inflation measure being used by Asian countries ?
1. Increase in benchmark interest rate by a central bank.
2. Checks on lending.
3. Subsidising fuel for farmers.
(A) Only 3
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Both 2 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
3. What makes it difficult for Asian countries to control inflation ?
(A) Restrictions by organizations like the Asian Development Bank
(B) Governments are indecisive and adopt counterproductive measures
(C) The problem is global in nature, not restricted to their individual countries
(D) Countries have never faced a financial crisis
(E) Economic growth rate cannot occur in the absence of inflation
4. Why are experts not very concerned about the impact of inflation on Asian economies ?
1. Asian countries have not maintained substantial hard currency reserves.
2. The condition of Asian banks is currently both stable and strong.
3. The Asian Development Bank will bail them out of any trouble.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
5. What is the author’s advice to politicians regarding the handling of inflation ?
(A) They should focus on preventing agitations among their citizens not implementing antiinflation measures
(B) They ought to implement anti-inflation measures even at the cost of losing office
(C) They must focus on maintaining high economic growth rate as inflation will taper off on its own
(D) Countries should handle the problem independently and not collectively
(E) None of these
6. What could the impact of stringent inflation measures be ?
(A) Increased consumption as families spend a larger part of their income on essential goods
(B) Politicians may be voted out of power
(C) Economic growth rate remains constant
(D) Oil prices within the country remain stable despite high global prices
(E) None of these
7. Why is high economic growth necessary for developing countries ?
(A) To catch up with the growth rate of the advanced countries
(B) To sustain their economies despite the ill effects of inflation
(C) To provide better educational opportunities to their citizens
(D) To create employment opportunities for citizens
(E) None of these
8. Why has inflation been referred to as a ‘catastrophe’ ?
(A) Prices of essential commodities are unaffordable for all
(B) Our past efforts to reduce poverty will be nullified
(C) Governments are unstable and do not take stringent decisions
(D) It has divided countries rather than ensuring co-operation among them
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
1. Growth rate in advanced countries was low so the effects of inflation were not felt.
2. Closing the economy to global markets will reduce inflation.
3. India has been the most severely affected by inflation.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
10. Which of the following factors was responsible for inflation in India ?
(A) Reserve Bank India raising the interest rates very frequently
(B) High population growth
(C) Sudden rise in prices of oil worldwide
(D) Reckless competition with China
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. stirs
(A) trembles
(B) moves
(C) mixes
(D) inspires
(E) agitates
12. scale
(A) descent
(B) climb
(C) hindrance
(D) cut
(E) measure
13. origin
(A) ancestry
(B) source
(C) inauguration
(D) down
(E) heritage
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. turbulent
(A) quiet
(B) rest
(C) soothes
(D) stormy
(E) lawful
15. gains
(A) decreases
(B) fails
(C) deprives
(D) frauds
(E) losses
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. The main objective of the workshop has made children aware of Western classical music.
(A) will make children aware
(B) is to make children aware
(C) is making aware children
(D) awareness of children
(E) No correction required
17. Afraid of missing her train and was late for the meeting, Sunita arrived an hour early at the station.
(A) but later for
(B) and been late to
(C) after being late
(D) and being late for
(E) No correction required
18. As a famous historian he has travelled around the world giving lectures on rare subjects.
(A) rarely to subjects
(B) of rare subject
(C) with rarest of subject
(D) in subjects rarely
(E) No correction required
19. The stadium wherever the opening ceremony will be held next month, is equipped with the latest facilities.
(A) in the opening ceremony
(B) which the ceremony will open
(C) where the opening ceremony
(D) that the opening ceremony
(E) No correction required
20. There will be a trend of unseasonal rainfall in April, in recent years.
(A) There has been
(B) It has been
(C) There is being
(D) It may have been
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
21. A committee has been…………..to…………..the transformation of the city into an international finance centre.
(A) constituted, convert
(B) appointed, oversee
(C) converged, evaluate
(D) inducted, change
(E) inaugurated, determine
22. Keeping in mind the…………..to develop the sector the government has………….. solicited foreign investment.
(A) importance, never
(B) proposal, forcibly
(C) objective, wanted
(D) view, discretely
(E) need, actively
23. In his speech he vowed to…………..the four billion unbanked individuals across the world into the…………..of financial inclusion.
(A) represent, sphere
(B) target, area
(C) bring, realm
(D) engage, achievement
(E) convince, era
24. Although he puts in…………..of overtime and takes few holidays, he…………..cannot support his family.
(A) sufficient, however
(B) lot, besides
(C) much, thus
(D) plenty, still
(E) frequency, yet
25. They have been…………..on incentives to…………..these practices are implemented at grass root level.
(A) relying, ensure
(B) improving, secure
(C) advocating, confirm
(D) debating, necessitate
(E) focusing, display
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. It was a cycling race launched in 1903, by Henri Desgrange, a magazine editor in Paris.
2. The Tour de France is a test of human endurance.
3. His idea worked and the magazine boomed.
4. His aim was to boost the circulation of his magazine.
5. He wanted to achieve this by covering every stage of the three week long, 3,500 kilometre long cycling race.
6. Till today the race remains more popular than he could ever have dreamed.
26. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
27. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
28. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
29. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
30. Which of the following should be the sixth (Last) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letters of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. On account of the week (A) / long strike the factory (B) / was forced to close and (C) / next month’s shipment will delay. (D) No error. (E)
32. Since the US economy experiences (A) / a recession many Asian countries (B) / are likely to have (C) / reduced growth rates this year. (D) No error. (E)
33. Oil is now so expensive that (A) / India will have to cut subsidies (B) / instead face running out (C) / of funds to import oil. (D) No error. (E)
34. It is unlikely that you will (A) / find a more qualified and experience (B) / candidate than Mr. Prasad (C) / for the post of President. (D) No error. (E)
35. On account of the rising (A) / costs many people are (B) / finding it difficult (C) / to feed their families. (D) No error. (E)
36. By marketing agriculture (A) / products well, we (B) / can ensure that (C) / farmers make a good profit. (D) No error. (E)
37. The promotion means (A) /that you may be (B) / post in Chennai (C) / from next month. (D) No error. (E)
38. This project is (A) / too big to (B) / undertake successfully at (C) / such short of notice. (D) No error. (E)
39. When our company was (A) / faced financial difficulties (B) / the training budget was (C) / the first to be cut. (D) No error. (E)
40. Conservationists believe that (A)/better management of national parks (B)/is the only way to save (C)/India’s tiger population from extinction. (D) No error. (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
In July 2008, one of the most inspiring leaders of our times, will …(41)… his ninetieth birthday. Nelson Mandela retired from politics in 1999, but he has remained …(42)…, continuing his work through the Nelson Mandela Foundation. The foundation has launched an Aids awareness campaign, 46664, named …(43)… Mandela’s prison number. He has also set up a scholarship programme whose …(44)… was to promote leadership among young Africans.
During the 1990s, …(45)… I worked with Mr. Mandela on his autobiography “Long Walk to Freedom”, I …(46)… his leadership first hand. During his election campaign we were on board a plane discussing his book. Twenty minutes …(47)… to landing the engine failed. Many began to panic. The only thing that …(48)… them was looking at Mandela, who was reading his paper as if he was a passenger on a morning train to work. The plane landed safely and when we got into the car taking us to the hotel he …(49)… to me, “I was terrified on the plane !” As a leader he realized he was a model for others and this gave him the strength to …(50)… over his own fear.
41. (A) tribute
(B) remember
(C) honour
(D) celebrate
(E) rejoice
42. (A) resigned
(B) active
(C) influenced
(D) participant
(E) reserved
43. (A) by
(B) with
(C) after
(D) as
(E) thereafter
44. (A) wish
(B) pursuit
(C) result
(D) plot
(E) aim
45. (A) when
(B) that
(C) period
(D) later
(E) alongside
46. (A) felt
(B) acquainted
(C) experienced
(D) underwent
(E) learned
47. (A) before
(B) sooner
(C) close
(D) prior
(E) advance
48. (A) calmed
(B) soothing
(C) composed
(D) restraint
(E) discipline
49. (A) speaks
(B) confided
(C) confidentially
(D) entrusted
(E) assured
50. (A) success
(B) overcame
(C) dominate
(D) victory
(E) triumph
Answers :
1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (E) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (E)
16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (E) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (E)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (E)
36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (E)
41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (A)
46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (E)
Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008
General Awareness :Solved Paper
(Held on 14-09-2008)
1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front?
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A. B. Bardhan
(C) D. Raju
(D) T. J. Chandrachoodan
(E) M. Veerappa Moily
Ans (E)
Hint : M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.
2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans : (A)
5. The Govt. of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incurred by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of—
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China
Ans : (B)
7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation, which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans : (C)
8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in "Youngbyon" was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation. Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Ans : (E)
10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea "a sea of peace, co-operation and friendship”?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World's seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of—
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey
Ans : (A)
14. Which of the following is/are true about the "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana" to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. Many Banks have adopted / launched "Core Banking Solution (CBS)" .Core Banking Solution is—
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately—
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %
Ans : (C)
18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 %?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. The National e-Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About—
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-
Ans : (D)
21. Ana Ivanovic won the "French Open Women's Singles" of Lawn Tennis after defeating—
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5th October
(B) 5th August
(C) 5th July
(D) 5th June
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of "Biggest Brains in Business"?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata
Ans : (A)
24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following is the total amount Government of India has earmarked for Agriculture Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme 2008?
(A) Rs.10,000 Crore
(B) Rs.25,000 Crore
(C) Rs.45,000 Crore
(D) Rs.72,000 Crore
(E) Rs.83,000 Crore
Ans : (D)
26. Which of the following States of India was recognized as the Best e- Governed State in 2007 ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Goa
(E) Delhi
Ans : (E)
27. Daiichi Sanyo which has taken a major stake in India's Pharma company Ranbaxy is a firm based in—
(A) China
(B) South Korea
(C) North Korea
(D) Japan
(E) USA
Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following airlines became the first Indian Based Airlines to operate flight to China?
(A) Indian
(B) Air India
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Jet Airways
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following meets / summit was organized in Damascus in March 2008 ?
(A) Arab League Summit
(B) G-8 Summit
(C) G-15 Summit
(D) Meeting of trade Minister of WTO members
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. India recently signed a Bilateral Investment Promotion Agreement (BIPA) with which of the following countries ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Myanmar
Ans : (E)
31. Opening the Saving Bank Account of a minor girl will be called as which of the following in Banking terminology ?
(A) Retail Banking
(B) Merchant Banking
(C) Institutional Banking
(D) Social Banking
(E) Corporate Banking
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following terms NOT used in Banking Sector?
(A) SLR
(B) NPA
(C) Credit Rating
(D) Fixed
(E) PURA
Ans : (E)
33. Banking Sector will fall under which of the following sectors?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Industrial Sector
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. An account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is done is known as—
(A) Demat Account
(B) NRI Account
(C) NRIO Account
(D) Current Account
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. Which of the following is NOT a measure of the Risk Management in Banks ?
(A) CRR
(B) RTGS
(C) SLR
(D) Deposit Insurance
(E) All are the measures of risk management
Ans : (B)
36. The foreign Direct Investment this year in India reached to the level of about US $ 3.74 billion. In comparison to last years investment the increase is About _______
(A) 50 %
(B) 100%
(C) 125 %
(D) 200 %
(E) 250 %
Ans : (C)
37. The duration of which of the following Policies / Schemes is from 2004–2009 ?
(A) Foreign Trade Policy
(B) 11th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) National Rural Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Which of the following test is conducted to know if a sportsman has taken any performance enhancing drugs ?
(A) EEG
(B) Narco Test
(C) ELISA Test
(D) Mind mapping
(E) DOPE tEST
Ans : (E)
39. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the IIFA Awards 2008 as Best Actress?
(A) Shamita Shetty
(B) Rani Mukherjee
(C) Priyanka Chopra
(D) Konkana Sen
(E) Kareena Kapoor
Ans : (E)
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "Toward a Hunger Free World" ?
(A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Ashok Lahiri
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) M. S. Swaminathan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
41. Which of the following awards is given in the field of cinema?
(A) Kalidas Samman
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Kalinga Award
(E) Dada Sahab Phalke Award
Ans : (E)
42. Sudan recently cut its ralations with which of the following countries following an attack on Khartoum by a Darfur Rebel Group ?
(A) Chad
(B) Uganda
(C) Libya
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
43. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society?
(A) Kareena Kapoor
(B) Jaya Bachchan
(C) Shabana Azmi
(D) Sridevi
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Hint : Nafisa Ali
44. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an autonomous organization under Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) NIMI
(B) IGNOU
(C) CAPART
(D) NPCIL
(E) ICRP
Ans : (C)
45. World's largest oil reserves (about 2/3rd) are located in—
(A) Russia
(B) Middle East
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
(E) Canada
Ans : (B)
46. Who amongst the following is the author of "Animal People" which was adjudged as the Best Book of the Year?
(A) V.S.Naipaul
(B) Indra Sinha
(C) William Darlymple
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) John Banville
Ans : (B)
47. What is India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank ?
(A) 55th
(B) 80th
(C) 100th
(D) 120th
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Hint : According to 2008 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank was 120th but to 2009 India's rating in the "Doing Business Report" prepared by the World Bank is 122nd position.
48. Which of the following term related with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Grand Slam
(B) Half Nelson
(C) Ashes
(D) Screen
(E) Love
Ans : (C)
49. The Russian President visited China in May 2008 and signed a deal for the security of which of the following?
(A) Global Energy
(B) China Sea
(C) Intellectual Property Rights of the Chinese Scientists
(D) Nuclear installation in China
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
50. Which of the following Programmes / Schemes of the Govt. of India is NOT directly related with agriculture activities ?
(A) Drought Prone Areas Programmes (DPAP)
(B) Promotion of Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
(C) Integrated Westlands Development Programme (IWDP)
(D) ANNAPURNA
(E) Desert Development Programme (DDP)
Ans : (D)
Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam, 2008
Computer General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on 17-08-2008)
1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as ....
(A) software suites
(B) integrated software packages
(C) software processing packages
(D) personal information managers
(E) none of these
Ans : (A)
2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by the end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers
(B) spam
(C) viruses
(D) identify theft
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems .
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.
(A) five
(B) six
(C) seven
(D) eight
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices and ______ software to work together.
(A) management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. The following are all computing devices , except.........
(A) notebook computers
(B) cellular telephones
(C) digital scanners
(D) personal digital assistants
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet
(B) data
(C) access method
(D) token
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
(A) basic input/output system
(B) secondary input/output system
(C) peripheral input/output system
(D) marginal input/output system
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a meAns : by which users can interact with the computer
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________
(A) mainframe
(B) network
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. URL stands for ........
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............
(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?
(A) Capture , process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
23. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as .....
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
32. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) registers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) command - based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation
(B) programming
(C) technical
(D) user
(E) None of these
Ans : ()
38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. Making a field ______ meAns : that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None pf these
Ans : ()
42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
44. What is a backup?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system's information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database
(B) character, record, field, database, file
(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
46. The internet is ......
(A) a large network of networks
(B) an internal communication system for a business
(C) a communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
49. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration
(B) accessibility
(C) authentication
(D) logging in
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Professional Knowledge Section of
Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam, 2008
General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on May 4-5-2008)
1. Nav Krishi is a programme by—
(1) Door Darshan
(2) All India Radio
(3) NIC
(4) ICRISAT
(5) MANAGE
2. One Acre is equal to…………..hectare.
(1) 0.0541
(2) 0.8032
(3) 0.1082
(4) 0.2514
(5) 0.4047
3. SRI technology is practiced for the cultivation of—
(1) Fruits
(2) Vegetables
(3) Flowers
(4) Rice
(5) Wheat
4. If the soil pH 9.2, then the soil is—
(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Alkaline
(4) Saline
(5) Sodic
5. …………..is used for the reclamation of acidic soil—
(1) Lime
(2) Gypsum
(3) Sulphur
(4) Calcium Chloride
(5) Ferrous Sulphate
6. 2008 is declared as International Year of—
(1) Rice
(2) Wheat
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Potato
(5) Apple
7. Golden revolution refers to the development of—
(1) Oilseeds
(2) Pulses
(3) Horticulture
(4) Cereals
(5) Fodder
8. The most important rabi pulse crop in India is—
(1) Chickpea
(2) Soyabean
(3) Pigeon pea
(4) Green gram
(5) Black gram
9. RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is—
(1) Growth promoter
(2) Molecular marker
(3) Growth retardent
(4) Herbicide
(5) Germicide
10. National Commission on Farmers was chaired by—
(1) Sri Som Pal
(2) Sri Y.C. Nanda
(3) Dr C. Rangarajan
(4) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(5) Sri Sharad Pawar
11. Global Positioning Systems are useful for—
(1) Determining precise location (latitude and longitude) based on radio signal
(2) Determining precise distance based on radio signal
(3) Determining general pest system
(4) Determining disease forecast
(5) Determining area of farm
12. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends—
(1) Comfort Price
(2) State Advised Price
(3) Minimum Support Price
(4) Minimum Export Price
(5) Statutory Minimum Price
13. NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus) is—
(1) Pest
(2) Pathogen
(3) Bio pesticide
(4) Bio fungicide
(5) Bio control agent
14. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation is known as—
(1) NIAM
(2) NAFED
(3) MARKFED
(4) NACMF
(5) NACOM
15. Which insect is known as farmers' enemy No.1?
(1) Bollworm
(2) Desert locust
(3) Aphids
(4) Stem borer
(5) Fruit fly
16. Indian Institute of Forest management is located at—
(1) Chennai
(2) Bhopal
(3) Hissar
(4) Dehradun
(5) Imphal
17. In India forests account for about …………..of land surface.
(1) 11%
(2) 22%
(3) 33%
(4) 14%
(5) 25%
18. VAM is an alternative to inorganic fertilizer. VAM is—
(1) Azospirillum
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Phosphate solubilising bacteria
(4) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(5) Azotobacter
19. An example of Single Cell Protein is—
(1) agar agar
(2) spirulina
(3) rhizobium
(4) acetobacter
(5) salmonella
20. Major producer of mulberry silk in India—
(1) Karnataka
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Assam
(5) Himachal Pradesh
21. Bird flu affects—
(1) Cattle
(2) Poultry
(3) Sheep
(4) Prawn
(5) Silkworm
22. Minor irrigation scheme comprises several types of works with capacities to irrigate upto—
(1) 2000 acre
(2) 2000 ha
(3) 1000 ha
(4) 1000 acre
(5) 2500 ha
23. Ideal NPK ratio for Indian soils is—
(1) 8 : 4 : 2
(2) 4 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 5 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 : 0.5
(5) 10 : 4 : 2
24. Which of the following is a bio diesel plant?
(1) Jatropha
(2) Rose
(3) Pepper
(4) Noni
(5) Teak
25. National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is situated at—
(1) Nagpur
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Kolkata
(5) Chennai
ANSWERS :
1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (3)8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)
Indian Bank Computer Officers' Exam, 2008
General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. A passive threat to computer security is—
(1) Malicious Intent
(2) Sabotage
(3) Accident Errors
(4) Espionage Agents
(5) None of these
2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification—
(1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Web site is legitimate
(2) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server
(3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server
(4) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems
(5) None of these
3. ……………allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail—
(1) TCP/IP
(2) Ethernet
(3)WAP
(4) Token ring
(5) None of these
4. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have—
(1) A Boot Record
(2) A File Allocation Table
(3) A Root Directory
(4) Virtual Memory
(5) BIOS
5. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to—
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(5) None of these
6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a—
(1) repository
(2) data warehouse
(3) RAD
(4) CASE
(5) None of these
7. The……………….component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(1) data extraction
(2) end-user query tool
(3) end-user presentation tool
(4) data store
(5) None of these
8. A(n)…………….allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server.
(1) single-user license agreement
(2) network site license
(3) end-user license agreement
(4) business software license
(5) None of these
9. A polymorphic virus—
(1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
(2) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains
(3) a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program
(4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program
(5) None of these
10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is—
(1) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(2) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(3) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(4) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(5) None of these
11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy?
(1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open
(2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files.
(3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data.
(4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters.
(5) None of these
12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is—
(1) Biometrics
(2) Compression
(3) Encryption
(4) Ergonomics
(5) None of these
13. The word FIP stands for—
(1) File Translate Protocol
(2) File Transit Protocol
(3) File Typing Protocol
(4) File Transfer Protocol
(5) None of these
14. Voice mail—
(1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet
(2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet
(3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party
(4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations
(5) None of these
15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is—
(1) Bridge
(2) Gateway
(3) Router
(4) Modem
(5) All of these
16. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web?
(1) VB Script
(2) Java Script
(3) CSS
(4) Java
(5) None of these
17. This.............tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(1) Client
(2) Applications/Web server
(3) Enterprise server
(4) DBA
(5) None of these
18. RSA is—
(1) Symmetric Cryptosystem
(2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem
(3) Block Cypher
(4) Digital Signature
(5) None of these
19. A DVD-RAM is similar to a………………except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.
(1) CD-R
(2) floppy disk
(3) CD-RW
(4) hard disk
(5) None of these
20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
(1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse
(2) The length of the mouse cord
(3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
(4) The number of buttons the mouse has
(5) None of these
21. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
(1) Through a power cable
(2) From an external power supply
(3) Directly from the computer's power supply
(4) Through the USB cable
(5) None of these
22. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except—
(1) each computer must have a network card
(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(3) there must be at least one connecting device
(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(5) None of these
23. The………….data mining technique derives rules from real-world case examples.
(1) Rule discover
(2) Signal processing
(3) Neural nets
(4) Case-based reasoning
(5) None of these
24. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(1) Cookies
(2) Plug-ins
(3) Scripts
(4) ASPs
(5) None of these
25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a JavaBean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action?
(1) Servlet Request
(2) Http Servlet Request
(3) Servlet Response
(4) Http Servlet Response
(5) None of these
ANSWERS :
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3)
Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2008
Reasoning : Solved Paper
(Held on 4-5-2008)
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Sand
(B) Stone
(C) Cement
(D) Brick
(E) Wall
Ans : (E)
2. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ?
(A) White
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’. How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (D)
4. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of—
17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ?
(A) 270
(B) 240
(C) 170
(D) 200
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y—
(A) D
(B) R
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (D)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper
(E) Brass
Ans : (E)
7. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ?
(A) 5#@7%
(B) 8#@7%
(C) 8#@%5
(D) 8@75%
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 39
(B) 38
(C) 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code ?
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) These questions are based on the following letter/number/ symbol arrangement.
Study it carefully and answer the questions.
T 8 # 1 7 F J 5 % E R @ 4 D A 2 B © Q K 3 1 ● U H 6 L
11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) E@%
(B) #78
(C) 5EJ
(D) U6●
(E) QKB
Ans : (E)
13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)
14. What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
TL8 #6I 7HF ?
(A) FUJ
(B) JU●
(C) FU●
(D) JU5
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. Which of the following is seventh to the right of thirteenth from the right ?
(A) 1
(B) ●
(C) F
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each question below are given three statements followed by two conclus ions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answer (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) is correct answer and indicate it on the answersheet. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
Ans : (C)
16. Statements :
Some cards are plastics.
Some Plastics are metals.
All metals are pots.
Conclusions :
I. Some pots are cards.
II. No pot is a card.
Ans : (C)
17. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are trains.
All trains are buses.
Conclusions :
I. All tables are buses.
II. All trains are tables.
Ans : (A)
18. Statements :
Some machines are computers.
Some computers are calculators.
Some calculators are phones.
Conclusions :
I. Some phones are computers.
II. Some computers are machines.
Ans : (B)
19. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
Some bowls are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are spoons.
II. Some plates are bowls.
Ans : (D)
20. Statements :
Some envelopes are packets.
Some packets are boxes.
All boxes are parcels.
Conclusions :
I. Some parcels are packets.
II. Some parcels are boxes.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question (E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
21. Among D, B, J, T and F who was the first person to reach the office ?
I. D reached before J and F but after B.
II. B was not the first to reach office.
Ans : (E)
22. What is the code for ‘not’ in the code language ?
I. In the code language ‘do not go’ is written as ‘la ra de’.
II. In the code language ‘go to school’ is written as ‘ka ma ra.’
Ans : (D)
23. How many children are there in the class ?
I. Rita ranks 23rd from the top.
II. Anita ranks 17th from the bottom and is five ranks above Rita.
Ans : (E)
24. How is Neela related to Deepa ?
I. Neela’s mother is Deepa’s brother’s wife.
II. Neela is the only granddaughter of Deepa’s mother.
Ans : (C)
25. R is in which direction with respect to T ?
I. R is to the east of H who is to the north of T.
II. Q is to the east of T and to the South of R
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) These questions are based on the following arrangements I & II. Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow—
I. P T 7 A # 4 B C 3 @ K F 1 9 ●
II. E H L © 6 8 $ U 5 J M 2 D% 1
26. How many such symbols are there in arrangements I & II together each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a numeral ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
27. If P7© : TAL : : B3J : ?
(A) @KJ
(B) C@J
(C) C@5
(D) 3KJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. Which element will be third to the right of seventh element from right end in the arrangement I if the order of its elements is reversed ?
(A) 7
(B) #
(C) F
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the position of the elements in the above two arrangements ?
H7 ©# 8B ?
(A) U3
(B) $C
(C) 3J
(D) UC
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. If the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth elements in arrangement II are replaced by the respective elements in arrangement I, which element will be third to the left of sixth element from the right end in arrangement II ?
(A) $
(B) B
(C) 7
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Symbols @, %, ●, $ and # are used with following meanings—
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A ● B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B.’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
31. Statements : G @ H, H ● Q, Q $ M
Conclusions : I. M % G
II. H $ M
Ans : (E)
32. Statements : F ● B, B @ E, E # J
Conclusions : I. F @ E
II. J $ B
Ans : (A)
33. Statements : R $ H, H % M, M # F
Conclusions : I. F $ H
II. F @ R
Ans : (D)
34. Statements : T # L, L % W, W @ V
Conclusions : I. L % V
II. T % W
Ans : (B)
35. Statements : K % L, L # T, I $ T
Conclusions : I. L % I
II. L ● I
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) These questions are based on the following information—
Seven persons R, J, M, Q, L, T and K conduct workshop on Developing Managerial skills in seven different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G on a different day of the week from Monday to Sunday. The order of persons, companies and days of the week are not necessarily the same.
J organizes workshop in Company D on Wednesday. Q does not conduct workshop for companies A or C and conducts on the next day of L who conducts the workshop for Company F. T conducts workshop for Company E on Friday. K conducts workshop on Monday but not for Company C or G. M conducts workshop for Company A but not on Tuesday.
36. Who conducts workshop on Saturday ?
(A) M
(B) Q
(C) L
(D) Q or L
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. On which day does Q conduct the workshop ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Saturday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. M conducts workshop on which day ?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. Which of the following combinations of person-company and day is correct ?
(A) K–B–Wednesday
(B) R–B–Monday
(C) K–C–Monday
(D) K–G–Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
40. Who conducts workshop for Company C and on which day ?
(A) R, Thursday
(B) R, Tuesday
(C) Q, Saturday
(D) Q, Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) Below in each question are given two statements (a) and (b). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its effect
(B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its effect
(C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent causes
(D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some common cause
41. (a) Government of state ‘X’ imposed a higher sales tax on petroleum products compared to the neighbouring states.
(b) All the petrol pumps in the state observed ‘bandh’ in protest.
Ans : (A)
42. (a) Attendance for the All India examination held in July 2006 was poor at all the centres.
(b) Western States of the country were affected by heavy floods during July 2006.
Ans : (D)
43. (a) High Court has declared stay on construction of residential buildings on the land under dispute.
(b) A large number of middle class salaries people had booked flats in the buildings under dispute.
Ans : (C)
44. (a) Residents in the locality have now decided to launch a cleanliness drive.
(b) Civic authorities in the city have recorded many cases of Cholera and gastro.
Ans : (B)
45. (a) Senior citizens of the city have complained about the late night disturbance
caused due to loudspeakers used during festivals.
(b) Though, the Government has issued a directive banning late night celebrations
involving use of loudspeakers, it is not being strictly followed in some of the areas.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) An organization wants to recruit Manager—HRD for its umbai division. The following criteria have been laid down, to be eligible for selection. The candidate must—
(a) Be a graduate in any discipline passed in first class with minimum 60% marks
(b) Have done post graduate degree/diploma in HRD or personnel management with minimum 65% marks
(c) Have cleared the selection test with minimum 50% marks
(d) Have cleared the interview with minimum 45% marks
(e) Be not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years of age as on 1.2.2007.
However, if a candidate satisfies all other criteria except for—
(i) At (b) above but has got-at-least two years post-qualification experience of working in HRD department case may be referred to the Chairman of the organisation.
(ii) At (c) above but has secured minimum 45% marks in selection test and 55% marks in interview the case may be referred to the President of the organization.
In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and
conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2007. You have to
indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows. Give answer—
(A) If the candidate is to be selected
(B) If the candidate is not to be selected
(C) If the case is to be referred to Chairman
(D) If the case is to be referred to President
(E) If the data provided is not adequate to decide the course of action
46. Nalini Zaveri has done her graduation in Arts in first class with 60% marks and postgraduate management diploma in HRD with 62% marks. Her date of birth is 16.1.1981. She has been working in the HRD department of a bank for past three years after completing her post-graduation diploma in HRD. She has secured 55% marks in selection test and 50% marks in interview.
Ans : (C)
47. Rajesh Nalawade is a B. Sc. In first class with 75% marks and post-graduate in personnel management with 60% marks. He is working as an Officer in administration department of an organisation for past two years. He has secured 55% marks in selection test and 52% marks in interview. He has completed 26 years of age in November 2006.
Ans : (B)
48. Shyam Bansode has passed B. Com. in first class with 65% marks and MBA in personnel management with 72% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 58% marks and interview with 52% marks. His date of birth is 17.5.1983.
Ans : (A)
49. Nikhil Agnihotri is a postgraduate in personnel management passed out in 2005 at the
age of 24 years securing 71% marks. He has secured 62% marks in selection test and 57% marks in interview.
Ans : (E)
50. Sujata Shirke has passed out B. Com. in first class with 62% marks in 2003 at the age of 21 years. Thereafter she has done MBA with specialization in HRD with 72% marks. She has secured 48% marks in selection test and 58% marks in interview.
Ans : (D)
Nabard Bank Officers Exam., 2008
General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on 30-3-2008)
1. Which of the following was the reason owing to which public unrest broke out in Pakistan and an Emergency was declared a few months back ?
1.
Sudden death of former Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto.
2.
Announcement of General Elections.
3.
Appointment of a new Chief of Army in place of Gen. Pervez Musharraf who was very popular leader there.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
2. India, Brazil and South Africa made a forum in 2003 which is playing a very significant role in dealing with the issues of common interest of all the three in general and their foreign policies in particular. What is the name of the forum ? (The Second Summit of the forum was organized in October 2007 in Pretoria)
(A) SAGU
(B) BRIC
(C) G-20
(D) IBSA
(E) None of these
3. Read the following three statements carefully and answer the question asked immediately after that—
1. Hu Jintao has been reelected the General Secretary of the ruling CPC for the second term till 2012.
2. Vice President of the country Zeng Quinghing was removed from the powerful Central Committee of the party.
3. Country is now likely to proceed on a new agenda of progress and development as Jintao is a man of modern and scientific outlook.
All these three statements are about the political development in the country known as—
(A) South Korea
(B) North Korea
(C) Singapore
(D) China
(E) Thailand
4. The mid term review of the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI (for 2007-08) took place in January 2008. Which of the following is true about the same ?
1.
CRR hiked by 0.5 per cent to make it 7.5% w.e.f. 10th February, 2008.
2.
GDP growth outlook at 8.5% for 2007-08.
3.
Call and put options are now allowed in imports and exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
5. An International Organization with Robert B. Zoellick as its President sanctioned a loan of US$ 944 million to India so that it can strengthen its rural finance system, vocational training and improve its water management projects. Which of the following is the name of that organization ?
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) UNESCO
(D) World Bank
(E) None of these
6. As per the news which appeared in some newspapers/magazines the police with the help of some NGOs rescued some children who had been forced in child labour illegally. Such children are protected under which of the following acts in India ?
1. Juvenile Justice Act.
2. Child Labour Act.
3. Immoral Trafficking Act.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
7. As per the news published in the media, India, China and some other countries are trying to grapple with money flooding the economy from a record trade surplus, and swelling of foreign exchange reserves of the country. Why do the Central Banks of such countries have to make special efforts to check the flooding of money and foreign exchange in economy whereas for an ordinary man more money means richness and prosperity ?
1.
It generates artificial inflation in economy.
2.
It makes the Govt. of that country to revaluate its currency.
3.
It creates a situation where rate of interest on loans and advances starts coming down sharply.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
8. The Govt. of India recently established a fund known as National Investment Fund (NIF). Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in this regard ?
1.
This fund is generated through the money received from the sale of equity in State run companies.
2.
The fund will help in revival of sick units of the public sector companies of the Govt. of India.
3.
The money deposited in the fund will be used for social welfare schemes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
9. The Govt. of India is making special efforts to help the farmer community in the country as they are in distress and demand special attention from all of us.
Which of the following is correct in this regard ?
1.
Govt. of India has announced a substantial hike in minimum support price of wheat for Rabi season.
2.
A relief package is announced for the Sugar Industry.
3.
All farmers are being given a cash assistance of Rs. 5 lakhs to make them comfortable financially.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following taxes is collected by the Govt. on sale of goods and services in the country ?
(A) NAT
(B) GET
(C) SAT
(D) VAT
(E) None of these
11. The N. D. Kumaraswamy Govt. came into minority in Karnataka because one segment of the coalition
government withdrew its support from it in October 2007.
Which of the following was that segment ?
(A) SP
(B) Congress
(C) BSP
(D) Telugu Desam
(E) None of these
12. The newly elected President of which of the following countries took over the charge from her husband who was the President of the country immediately prior to the general presidential elections there ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Romania
(D) Peru
(E) Argentina
13. The latest European Union Summit took place in which of the following cities in October 2007 ?
(A) Brussels
(B) Paris
(C) Luxembourg
(D) Lisbon
(E) None of these
14. The UN Climate change Conference 2007 was organized in which of the following places ?
(A) Manila
(B) London
(C) Brussels
(D) Lisbon
(E) Bali
15. India ranks 128 in the recently published Human Development Index (HDI). The index measures
which of the following to decide the rank of a country ?
1. Life expectancy
2. Literacy and Education
3. Forex reserves as a percentage of total GDP
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
16. Kevin Rudd recently took over as the Prime Minister of Australia from John Howard. Which of the following policies of John Howard went wrong and against him who otherwise was holding the post since last four terms of four years each ?
1. Refusal to ratify Kyoto protocol
2. Policy of hiring and firing workers any time
3. Support to non-democratic govt. in some countries
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
17. Many a time we read a term ‘PPP’ in financial newspapers. What is the full form of the same as used in financial world ?
(A) Public Per Capita Power
(B) Per Capita Potential Purchases
(C) Purchasing Power Parity
(D) Present Purchasing Power
(E) None of these
18. ‘Cryogenic Engines’ are being developed indigenously by an Indian organization. These engines are normally used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Used for space programme
(B) Used for generating nuclear power
(C) Used by Railways as they are very fast and fuel efficient
(D) Used in fighter planes
(E) None of these
19. The UN has revealed that the emergency phase is now over in Chernobyl where a disastrous accident had taken place in 1986. The affected people there will now be treated as normal and not as victims. What had happened in Chernobyl in 1986 ?
(A) A train accident in which about 1000 people had died
(B) A bomb blast in which around 500 people died and 5000 were injured
(C) A nuclear plant exploded and the entire city became a radioactive zone
(D) A powerful earthquake rocked the entire city leaving thousands dead and several thousands injured
(E) None of these
20. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission constituted recently ?
(A) Vijay Kelkar
(B) B. K. Chaturvedi
(C) K. V. Kamath
(D) A. K. Purwar
(E) None of these
21. Many a time we read in newspapers about the “Doha Round” of talks. It was related with the talks of which of the following organizations ?
(A) European Union
(B) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(C) International Atomic Energy Agencies (IAEA)
(D) G-8 talks
(E) None of these
22. Dinar is the currency of which of the following countries ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these
23. The former President of Mozambique Joaquim Chissano was honoured by the first ever international prize to an African leader, the prestigious “Mo Ibrahim Leadership Prize”. The Prize was given to him in 2007 October. What was the contribution of Chissano owing to which he was selected for the same ?
(Pick up the correct statement)
1.
He was instrumental in bringing peace, reconciliation, stable democracy and economic progress to Mozambique.
2.
He played a crucial role in diffusing tension between Iran and IAEA over the issue of Iran’s nuclear facilities.
3.
He played a crucial role in diffusing conflict between India and some western countries over the issue of subsidy to agriculture in WTO conference held in 2007.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
24. Who amongst the following Indian leaders became the second World Leader to receive the British Royal Society’s prestigious King Charles II Medal ?
(Given in October 2007)
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(E) None of these
25. The “Outstanding Business Leader Award–2007” was given to whom amongst the following in October 2007 ?
(A) Lakshmi Mittal
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Rahul Bajaj
(D) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(E) None of these
26. The Doing Business Report, an international publication, is published every year by which of the following organization(s) ?
1. World Bank
2. WTO
3. Reserve Bank of India
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
27. The fourth Military World Games–2007 were organized in which of the following places in India ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bangalore
(E) Cochin
28. The 47th Open National Athletic Championship 2007 was organized in which of the following places ?
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Bangalore
(E) None of these
29. Who amongst the following is not a famous Lawn tennis player ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Leander Paes
(C) Svetlana Kuznetsova
(D) Justin Henin
(E) Kimi Raikkonen
30. Lot of discussion is going on these days on the issue of ‘Participatory Note’ (P Notes) used in financial sector/money market. What is Participatory Note ?
[Pick up the correct statement(s)]
1.
It is nothing but another name of the banking operation by which banks exchange Indian Rupees into US Dollars without depositing a single rupee in the account of the party who are NRIs. The entire operation is carried out by the banks solely on the basis of the credit and goodwill of the NRI party.
2.
It is an offshore derivative instrument used by overseas buyers/investors who buy shares of Indian companies listed in Indian Stock Exchange anonymously.
3.
It is nothing but a type of undertaking given to the banks that they should continue investing money in stock markets on behalf of the NRIs and in case the market crashes NRI’s will make the losses good without delay.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
31. As we all see every now and then many countries are in the race of launching space shuttles or rockets or satellites. What exactly are the benefits of space programmes which otherwise are very costly affairs for the countries ?
1.
It is nothing but a fun to have a visit to space. It has no real benefit as such.
2.
Humanity can be served/benefited by getting data on weather, disaster alerts and/or resource centres connected through satellites.
3.
Since earth is no longer a place to live we have to find out a place where in the next few years we can shift and survive. Such programmes help us in all this.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
32. As we all see oil prices have a special place in economic folklore. Almost all countries keep an eagle eye on the oil prices in the international market. Why is oil so important for the countries and their economies to survive ?
[Pick up the correct statement(s)]
1.
Two nastiest global recessions of the recent decades were preceded by huge and sudden rises in prices of oil, first in 1973 and then in 1979. Leaders are scared of their repetition.
2.
What makes oil so special is that it is a uniquely dense and portable form of energy. It is not easy to switch to alternatives very quickly, hence any disruptions to supply are damaging for economies.
3.
Oil exporting countries are most powerful and violent nations. Countries do not want to invite trouble with them.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
33. Which of the following is the name of Tata’s small car launched recently ?
(A) Micro
(B) Sapna
(C) Nano
(D) Lakhtakia
(E) None of these
34. The House of Representatives of USA recently approved a US$ 50 billion War Funding Bill. If passed it would require President Bush to start withdrawing troops from—
(A) Iraq
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sudan
(D) China
(E) South Africa
35. The public protest on which of the following issues recently brought the whole of the France to a near standstill for the second time in a month ?
1. Irregularities in Presidential elections held in 2007.
2. President Sarkozy’s plan to reform public sector pensions.
3. France’s support to USA on Iraq’s rebuilding
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
36. Who amongst the following was adjudged as Miss Earth-Air 2007 ?
(A) Pooja Chitgopekar
(B) Pooja Gupta
(C) Amruta Patki
(D) Sarah Jane Dias
(E) None of these
37. As per the news which appeared in newspapers/magazines thousands of civilians have to flee the fighting in North Kivu province as there is a war going on between the army of the country and rebels of General Laurent Nkunda. This is the story of which of the following countries ?
(A) Congo
(B) Sudan
(C) Mozambique
(D) Argentina
(E) None of these
38. About 20,000 students demonstrated against plans to President Hugo Chavez to change the constitution
of the country. Chavez is the President of—
(A) Sudan
(B) Congo
(C) Venezuela
(D) Poland
(E) None of these
39. Govt. of India recently announced its action plan on Sachchar Committee Report. What actions are being taken on the report ?
1.
Govt. to bear all expenses of poor students who get into top institutions on merit basis.
2.
Revision of Madarsa Modernization programme.
3.
Special Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme for minority population.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Only 3 is correct
(E) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
40. As we read in the newspapers the 123 Agreement with USA will have strategic implications on India. Which of the following is/are these implications ?
1.
India will get recognition as a state with advanced nuclear technology.
2.
The deal will not be offered to Pakistan.
3.
India will be free to develop nuclear weapon for its military purposes.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Only 3 is correct
(E) None is correct
41. The Govt. of India recently gave its clearance to the new Agriculture scheme which will provide additional central assistance to the agri. sector. What is/are the main points of this scheme ?
1.
Public Investment in agriculture sector will be banned.
2.
Govt. will help state govts. to achieve the targeted growth rates in agri. sector.
3.
State Govt. will get Rs. 40,000 crores to provide subsidy to agri. sector.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(E) None is correct
42. Who amongst the following are the members of BRIC the summit of which was organized recently ?
1. India
2. Indonesia
3. Brazil
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) Both 1 and 3
43. Abuja Declaration was in news a few months back. This is the pact signed between which of the following two nations ?
(A) India-Sudan
(B) Sudan-China
(C) India-China
(D) Nigeria-Nepal
(E) India-Nigeria
44. USA recently decided to slap few sanctions against Iran which include ouster of Iranian military and banking institutions from US financial system. Why did US resort to such harsh steps against Iran ?
1.
Iran’s alleged support to Pakistan’s military rule.
2.
Iran’s support to terrorism and nuclear programme.
3.
Iran is against any financial help to Iraq as both are old enemies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
45. As reported in the newspapers Aung San Suu Kyi has agreed to cooperate with the military ruler of her country. She is a citizen of—
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
(E) Hong Kong
46. India won Future Cup Twenty-20 cricket match held in October 2007 in Mumbai. The match was played against—
(A) Pakistan
(B) England
(C) South Africa
(D) New Zealand
(E) Australia
47. Who amongst the following is not one of the Nobel Prize Winners of 2007 ?
(A) Ms. Doris Lessing
(B) Albert Fert
(C) Roger B. Myerson
(D) Al Gore
(E) Yulia Sindzeyeva
48. Who amongst the following won the Man Booker Prize 2007 ?
(A) K. Narayana Kurup
(B) Eric S. Maskin
(C) Mario R. Capecchi
(D) Anne Enright
(E) None of these
49. Who amongst the following was made the Chairman/Chairperson of the National Land Reforms Commission ?
(A) Somnath Chatterjee
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(D) Murli Deora
(E) None of these
50. The prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2006 was recently conferred upon—
(A) Prof. Wangari Maathai
(B) Mr. Kevin Rudd
(C) Mr. Ratan Tata
(D) Mr. Mahmoud Abbas
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (E) 12. (E) 13. (D) 14. (E) 15. (C)
16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (E) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (E) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C)
36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (E) 44. (B) 45. (B)
46. (E) 47. (E) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (A)
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